Let $X$ be a topological space. A subspace $A\subset X$ is said to be a strong neighbourhood-deformation retract of $X$, if there is an open neighbourhood $U$ of $A$ and a continuous map $h:U\times [0,1]\to U$ such that
$h(u,0)=u$, $\;h(u,1)\in A$ and $h(a,t)=a$ for all $u\in U$ and $(a,t)\in A\times [0,1]$. (Note that this is not exactly the same definition of $A$ strong deformation rectract in $X$ as you can see here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Retract .. However, $A$ is a strong deformation retract in $U$).
Consider the complex projective space $\mathbb{C}P^n:=\mathbb{C}^{n+1}\setminus \{0\} /\sim$, where $x,y\in \mathbb{C}^{n+1}\setminus \{0\}$ satisfy $x\sim y$ $:\iff \exists \lambda\in \mathbb{C}\setminus \{0\}$ such that $x=\lambda y$. I know that $\mathbb{C}P^n\cong S^{2n+1}/x\sim \lambda x,\;\lambda\in S^1$.
My question: Why is $\mathbb{C}P^n$ a strong neighbourhood-deformation retraction of $\mathbb{C}P^{n+1}$? I need this fact for other calculations, but I don't know why this is true.
I appreciate your help.
Edit: Can I use that $S^{n-1}$ is a strong neighbourhood deformation retract of $D^n$ (with $U=\mathbb{R}^n\setminus \{0\}$ ) ?