For every $n>0$, let $U_n=1+p^n\mathbb{Z}_p$ be the group of units in $\mathbb{Z}_p$ which are $\equiv1\pmod{p^n}$. I know the proof of following theorem:
Let $x\in U_n$ with $n>0$ if $p\neq2$ and $n>1$ if $p=2$. There is a unique morphism of groups $f_x:\mathbb{Z}_p\to U_n$ such that if $a=(a_r)_{r>0}$ (with $a_r\in\mathbb{Z}/p^r\mathbb{Z}$) and $x=(x_r)_{r>0}$ (with $x_r\in U_n/U_{n+r}$), then $f_x(a)=(x_r^{a_r})_{r>0}$. If $x\notin U_{n+1}$, then $f_x$ is an isomorphism.
From this how can I prove the following corollary:
The group $U_1$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_p$ for $p\neq2$ and the group $U_2$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_2$ for $p=2$.
Also, I am not able to comprehend the point of showing isomorphism between a group and a ring.
Edit: Can following fact (derived from main theorem) be helpful:
$U_n$ is a free $\mathbb{Z}_p$-module of rank 1.