Usually, one sees the following definition of interior multiplication:
Let $V$ be an $n$-dimensional (real) vector space. $$ \iota_v :A_k(V) \to A_{k-1}(V) \, , \, (\iota_v \omega)(v_1, v_2, \dots, v_{k-1}) := \omega(v,v_1, v_2, \dots, v_{k-1}) ,$$
Where $A_k(V)$ is the vector space of all alternating multilinear maps $V^k \to \mathbb{R}$. Recall that $A_k(V) \cong \Lambda_k(V^*)$ where $\Lambda_k(V)$ is one of the direct summands of the Grassmann algebra (also known as the exterior algebra) of $V$.
My question: Does interior multiplication come from a suitable operation "lurking behind" on $\Lambda_k(V)$? i.e is there an opearation $j:\Lambda_k(V) \to \Lambda_{k-1}(V)$ s.t when aplplied to $V^*$ instead of $V$, it coincides with $i$.
A situation like this happens with the wedge product. One can define it explicitly on alternating maps (i.e $k$-covectors), but of course the wedge is defined on $k$-vectors, i.e $\alpha \wedge \beta = [\alpha \otimes \beta] $, and only when specializing to $V^*$ one gets the standard "wedge of forms" on $k$-covectors. (From this perspective, the wedge of the exterior algebra is a more "fundamental notion" then the wedge of forms).
Essentially, what I am asking is whether or not something analogous holds for the interior multiplication.
Comment: A possible approach to take is the following:
Given a vector space $V$, set $W=V^*$, and consider the interior multiplication of $W$, i.e given $\alpha \in W$, consider $i_{\alpha}:\Lambda_k(W^*) \to \Lambda_{k-1}(W^*)$. Since $W^*=V^{**}=V$ (the last equality is the natural identification between a space and its bi-dual) we consider the map $i_{\alpha}$ as a map $j^V_{\alpha}:\Lambda_k(V) \to \Lambda_{k-1}(V)$ (note we changed notation and gave a assigned a different letter for this "new" map to avoid confusion) .
In other words, we have for every $\alpha \in V^*$ a map $j^V_{\alpha}:\Lambda_k(V) \to \Lambda_{k-1}(V)$.
Considering this map as the "fundamental object", and taking $W=V^*$, we get that for every $v \in V^{**}=V$ there is a map $j^{V^*}_{v}:\Lambda_k(V^*) \to \Lambda_{k-1}(V^*)$. Now it remains to see if $j^{V^*}_{v}=i_v$. Actually, even if this is the case I am somehow unsatisfied from this solution. I would at least want to get an explicit expression ("formula") for the map $j^V_{\alpha}$.