A polynomial $f(x) \in \mathbb{Q}[x]$ is called a numerical polynomial if it satisfies the following equivalent conditions:
- If $a_{i} \in \mathbb{Q}$ are the unique coefficients satisfying $f = a_{0}\binom{x}{0} + \dotsb + a_{d}\binom{x}{d}$, then $a_{k} \in \mathbb{Z}$ for all $k$. (Here $\binom{x}{k} := \frac{(x-0)(x-1) \dotsb (x-(k-1))}{k!}$.)
- The polynomial $f$ is integer-valued, i.e. $f(\mathbb{Z}) \subseteq \mathbb{Z}$.
Is it true that for any subring $S \subseteq \mathbb{Q}$ we have $f(S) \subseteq S$?
It is equivalent to answer the question for $f(x) = \binom{x}{k}$. In this case it would be enough to know whether the expression $$ \alpha(m,n,k) := \frac{m(m-n) \dotsb (m-(k-1)n)}{k!} $$ is an integer for any integers $m,n$ (with $n \ne 0$), but I don't know if it has a combinatorial interpretation.
EDIT: The expression $\alpha(m,n,k)$ is not always an integer (in fact $\alpha(k!+1,k!,k)$ is not an integer for all $k \in \mathbb{N}$). But this does not yet give an answer to the main question, as $f(1+\frac{1}{k!}) \in \mathbb{Z}[\frac{1}{k!}]$ for $f(x) = \binom{x}{k}$.
(My motivation for this question is the proof of Stacks Project Tag 0CAP, which says $\binom{1/n}{k} \in \mathbb{Z}[1/n]$.)