I recently stumbled upon this question.
After playing around with the definition a bit I am just not able to see why L-Lipschitz-Smoothness implies the inequality mentioned in 1:
$$ f(x + y) \leq f(x) + y^\top \nabla f(x) + \frac{L}{2} \| y \|^2 $$
I would love some pointers if anyone has any.