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A metric space X is called complete if every Cauchy sequence of points in X has a limit that is also in X. It's perfectly clear to me.

A measure space $(X, \chi, \mu)$ is complete if the $\sigma$-algebra contains all subsets of sets of measure zero. That is, $(X, \chi, \mu)$ is complete if $N \in \chi$, $\mu (N) = 0$ and $A \subseteq N$ imply $A \in \chi$. Technically, I could understand the definition, but can't get the logic behind it.

Questions:

1) Why do we care only about subsets of sets of measure zero to determine completeness?

2) How does the completeness of measure spaces relate to a completeness of metric spaces?

3) Could you suggest a concrete elementary example of a measure space (preferably, with simple sets) that isn't initially complete and then is completed?

Konstantin
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  • It's unrelated. 3)$\mathbb{R}$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure on it.
  • – Jon-S Oct 29 '16 at 20:00
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    There is a somewhat tenuous link between this notion and completeness for metric spaces, but it's probably not the best way to think about completeness. See my response in this thread: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/926435/complete-measure-space/926691 – Josh Keneda Oct 30 '16 at 00:00