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I have read Edward Nelson's Warning signs of a possible collapse of contemporary mathematics a couple of times, it is a very interesting read, but I do not understand the conclusory paragraph. In particular I am interested in the final 'warning sign', beginning from the fable on page 8 and continuing through to the end (all relevant information for my question is copied below).

The belief that exponentiation, superexponentiation, and so forth, applied to numerals yield numerals is just that—a belief.


Note: we are working in the standard 7 axioms of PA for this question.

Numerals are defined as follows. $0$ is a numeral; if $x$ is a numeral, so is $\text{S}x$. In a standard way, we introduce addition: $$\begin{align} x+0 &=x,\\ x+\text{S}y &=\text{S}(x+y), \end{align}$$ multiplication: $$\begin{align} x\cdot 0 &=0,\\ x\cdot\text{S}y &=x+(x\cdot y), \end{align}$$ and exponentiation: $$\begin{align} x\uparrow 0 &=\text{S}0,\\ x\uparrow\text{S}y &=x\cdot(x\uparrow y). \end{align}$$ Then we define counting numbers, introducing two new axioms to our system:

  1. $0$ is a counting number.
  2. If $x$ is a counting number, then $\text Sx$ is a counting number.

additionable numbers:

$x$ is an additionable number in case for all counting numbers $y$, the sum $y + x$ is a counting number.

and finally, multiplicable numbers:

$x$ is a multiplicable number in case for all additionable numbers $y$, the product $y \cdot x$ is an additionable number.

We prove that additionable and multiplicable numbers are closed—i.e. if $x_1$ and $x_2$ are additionable (respectively, multiplicable) numbers, then $x_1+x_2$ is additionable (respectively, $x_1\cdot x_2$ is multiplicable).

But now we come to a halt. If we attempt to define 'exponentiable number' in the same spirit, we are unable to prove that if $x_1$ and $x_2$ are exponentiable numbers then so is $x_1 \uparrow x_2$. [...] The belief that exponentiation, superexponentiation, and so forth, applied to numerals yield numerals is just that—a belief.

It is at this point that I lose the author. If I understand correctly, he is saying that given two numerals $x_1$ and $x_2$ (i.e. $\text S\text S\text S\ldots 0=x_1$ for some number of $\text S$s, and similarly for $x_2$), then $$x_1\uparrow x_2=\underbrace{x_1\cdots x_1}_{x_2\text{-times}}$$ is not a numeral (i.e. we cannot definitely say that there is some number of $\text S$s for which $x_1\uparrow x_2=\text S\text S\text S\ldots 0$). If this is not what was intended, what is the author's point at the end here?

However, if I understand right, then I am not convinced; below I demonstrate my attempt to show this given some $x_1\uparrow x_2$. Can we not 'break this down' as follows? (From here I use the notation $\text S^k 0$ for the numeral $k$, that is the numeral $\underbrace{\text{SS}\ldots\text S}_{k\text{-times}}0$.)

$$\begin{align} x_1\uparrow x_2&=\underbrace{x_1\cdots x_1}_{x_2\text{-times}}\\ &=\underbrace{(\text S^{x_1} 0)\cdots (\text S^{x_1} 0)}_{(\text S^{x_2} 0)\text{-times}}\\ &=(\text S^{x_1} 0\cdot \text S^{x_1} 0)\cdot\underbrace{(\text S^{x_1} 0)\cdots (\text S^{x_1} 0)}_{(\text S^{x_2}0-2 )\text{-times}}, \end{align}$$ now apply the definition of multiplication to $\text S^{x_1} 0\cdot \text S^{x_1} 0$ to find $$\begin{align} \text S^{x_1} 0\cdot \text S^{x_1} 0&=\text S^{x_1} 0+(\text S^{x_1} 0\cdot \text S^{x_1-1} 0)\\ &=\text S^{x_1} 0+\text S^{x_1} 0+(\text S^{x_1} 0\cdot \text S^{x_1-2} 0)\\ &=\cdots=\underbrace{\text S^{x_1} 0+\text S^{x_1} 0+\cdots+\text S^{x_1} 0}_{x_1\text{-times}}+(\text S^{x_1} 0\cdot 0)\\ &=\underbrace{\text S^{x_1} 0+\text S^{x_1} 0+\cdots+\text S^{x_1} 0}_{x_1\text{-times}}. \end{align}$$ Do this a finite number of times to put $x_1\uparrow x_2$ in the form of an addition; at which point applying the definition of addition a finite number of times should yield $$x_1\uparrow x_2=\underbrace{\text{SS}\ldots\text S}_{x_1^{x_2}\text{-times}}0.$$ Now $x_1\uparrow x_2=\underbrace{\text{SS}\ldots\text S}_{x_1^{x_2}\text{-times}}0$ is a numeral by induction.


The claim 'that exponentiation, superexponentiation, and so forth, applied to numerals yield numerals is just that—a belief' is a strong one, what does Nelson mean and how does he conclude this?

Thank you!

Mikhail Katz
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Szmagpie
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    It's just Nelson expressing his ultrafinitist position. Because there is no generally well-regarded grounding for ultrafinitism - unlike ordinary finitism, which has no problems with exponentiation, or constructivism, which also accepts exponentiation - there is not much to say other than: the argument comes from Nelson attempting to explain his personal viewpoint on the matter. – Carl Mummert Oct 24 '16 at 14:23
  • I kinda have to agree with @CarlMummert here. I see no reason that if he accepts the addition and multiplication schemes that he would find the exponentiation scheme unacceptable. It's literally is to multiplication exactly what multiplication is to addition. I suppose the only negative thing about is that, unlike addition and multiplication, exponentiation is not a commutative operator on 'counting numbers' (e.g. $a^b\neq b^a$ in general). – Justin Benfield Oct 24 '16 at 14:28
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    I think I see his reasoning at least (I may take issue with what it's predicated on), Thm 14 uses associativity, and addition and multiplication have that property, exponentiation does not. Hence the proof technique used for thm 14 no longer works for exponentiation. – Justin Benfield Oct 24 '16 at 14:38
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    A key part of his technique is to work with a theory - which is supposed to be a theory of natural numbers - so that the theory includes a concept of "counting number" with an axiom that $0$ is a counting number, and an axiom that the counting numbers are closed under successor, but the induction axiom implying that every number is a "counting number" is intentionally not included. Then he defines "additionable", etc., in terms of "counting numbers", which makes it harder to prove things about these concepts by induction. Overall the theory he is working with is very idiosyncratic. – Carl Mummert Oct 24 '16 at 14:46
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    Nelson sounds like the kooks at sci.math. With the usual 5 Peano Axioms + set theory you can construct, i.e. prove the existence of functions that seem to perfectly model the usual addition, multiplication, and exponentiation functions on the natural numbers. With only the possible exception of $0^0$, $x^y$ can be determined for any natural numbers $x$ and $y$. – Dan Christensen Oct 25 '16 at 03:21
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    @DanChristensen First, $0^0 = 1$ according to the usual definition of exponentiation (number of functions from a $y$-element set to an $x$-element set). Second, Nelson is not a kook. He just has uncommon views on the philosophy of mathematics which—whether you agree with them or not—arise from paying very close attention to things most people take for granted. – user76284 Mar 18 '20 at 00:08
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    @DanChristensen Nelson isn't assuming PA or set theory or something similar, though - if you want to cast his critique in standard logical language, he's working in a very weak system of arithmetic (e.g. $I\Delta_0$ or similar). There's nothing inherently kooky about that. – Noah Schweber Mar 18 '20 at 01:27
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    Incidentally, a couple questions of mine are related to the technical aspects of Nelson's claims: $1$, $2$. – Noah Schweber Mar 18 '20 at 01:28
  • @user76284 The "usual definition?" Most people, it seems to me, are taught that, consistent with real analysis, $0^0$ is also undefined on the natural numbers. See my blog posting on $0^0$ at http://dcproof.com/0-to-the-power-of-0.html – Dan Christensen Mar 18 '20 at 17:21
  • @DanChristensen Like I said, the definition of $x^y$ for natural numbers is the number of functions from a $y$-element set to an $x$-element set. This definition also extends to transfinite cardinals. – user76284 Mar 18 '20 at 18:02
  • @user76284 You can also make an analogy to the so-called empty product. But if you don't want to simply make analogies, there doesn't seem to be any purely arithmetical argument for assigning any particular value to $0^0$. On the other hand, such an argument can be made for every other combination of base and exponent values in $N$. One can also be made for EVERY combination of values for addition and multiplication on $N$ with no analogies required. It seems that only for $0^0$ is an analogy supposedly required on $N$. And, of course, $0^0$ is also undefined on the reals. – Dan Christensen Mar 18 '20 at 19:06
  • @DanChristensen What “analogy” are you referring to? Explain why you think there is a “purely arithmetical” argument for $0 + 0 = 0$ and $0 \times 0 = 0$ but not $0^0 = 1$. – user76284 Mar 19 '20 at 06:51
  • @DanChristensen “And, of course, $0^0$ is also undefined on the reals.” Not at all. If the definition of real exponentiation you’re using extends/generalizes that for naturals (as it should) it makes perfect sense that $0^0 = 1$. What definition of real exponentiation are you using? – user76284 Mar 19 '20 at 07:00
  • @user76284 See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zero_to_the_power_of_zero#Continuous_exponents On the reals, the limit of $x^y$ as you approach $(0,0)$ depends on the path taken. It could be any non-negative real value, hence the indeterminacy. Similarly, using purely arithmetical arguments based on repeated multiplication on N, any value would work for $0^0$. – Dan Christensen Mar 19 '20 at 16:38
  • @DanChristensen "Similarly, using purely arithmetical arguments based on repeated multiplication on N, any value would work for $0^0 = 1$." No. Repeated multiplication leads us to the empty product, which is equal to the multiplicative identity (1), just like repeated addition leads us to the empty sum, which is equal to the additive identity (0). – user76284 Mar 19 '20 at 18:32
  • @DanChristensen That's not what I asked. I asked what definition of real exponentiation you're using. It is perfectly possible for a function to be discontinuous at a point but still defined at that point. In any case, $0^x$ is undefined for $x<0$ anyway, whereas $x^0$ is equal to 1 everywhere. – user76284 Mar 19 '20 at 18:47
  • @user76284 I am not using any particular definition. Just pointing out the rationale that is used for leaving $0^0$ undefined or unspecified on the reals. – Dan Christensen Mar 19 '20 at 18:50
  • @user76284 The empty product is another analogy. It is based on the convention that $\prod_{k=a}^b x_k = 1$ for any $a>b$ and whatever the $x_k$ may be. I think it, too, should be undefined. – Dan Christensen Mar 19 '20 at 18:59
  • @DanChristensen I perfectly agree that that limit is indeterminate, but that doesn't mean $0^0$ doesn't have a value. It does have a value, namely the value given by the empty product, the number of functions from the empty set to the empty set, the hyperoperation definition, the binomial theorem, etc. That value is 1. I really don't understand your insistence on declaring $0^0$ to be undefined. To me it's as bizarre as insisting $0 \times 0$ is undefined, when in fact it has the perfectly natural value of 0. – user76284 Mar 19 '20 at 19:04
  • @DanChristensen No, the empty product shouldn't be "undefined". It's defined based on the fact that the value of an associative, commutative operation on an empty sequence of arguments should be the identity of that operation, because the concatenation of any sequence with the empty sequence leaves the former unchanged. It's the same reason why the empty sum is 0 and the empty supremum is $-\infty$ (on the extended real line). – user76284 Mar 19 '20 at 19:08
  • @user76284 Unlike the case for $0^0$, a purely arithmetical argument can be made for assigning specific values to $0\times 0$ and $0+0$ and $0!$. – Dan Christensen Mar 19 '20 at 19:11
  • @DanChristensen What is it? And what do you mean by "purely arithmetical"? Not that it would negate any of the other reasons why $0^0 = 1$, of course. – user76284 Mar 19 '20 at 19:11
  • @user76284 For $0\times 0 =0$: We start with (1) $a\times 2=a+a$ and (2) $a\times (b+1)=a\times b+ a$. Assuming the cancellation properties of addition on $N$, it is trivial derive $0\times 0=0$. – Dan Christensen Mar 19 '20 at 19:45
  • @DanChristensen Can you elaborate? – user76284 Mar 19 '20 at 20:05
  • @user76284 Set $a=0$ in (1) to obtain $0\times 2 = 0$. Set $a=0$ and $b=1$ in (2) and apply cancelability to obtain $0\times 1=0$. Set $a=0$ and $b=0$ in (2) and apply cancelability to obtain $0\times 0=0$. – Dan Christensen Mar 19 '20 at 20:13
  • @DanChristensen I see what you mean. Still, one can easily derive $0^0 = 1$ for all the above reasons. – user76284 Mar 19 '20 at 21:46
  • @user76284 Not really. For exponentiation, we start with (1) $a^2=a\times a$, and (2) $a^{b+1}=a^b\times a$. It turns out that there are infinitely many functions that satisfy these conditions, but they all agree on every combination of base and exponent values in $N$ except for $0^0$ for which any number whatsoever would work. (Not unlike the case of the reals in this way.) – Dan Christensen Mar 20 '20 at 02:50
  • @DanChristensen "Not really" what? $b^0$ is the number of empty tuples of elements from a set with $b$ elements. There is exactly 1 such tuple, even if $b=0$. $0^0$ is the number of functions from the empty set to the empty set. There is exactly 1 such function, namely the empty function. $x^0$ is the identity element of the polynomial ring, whose evaluation is 1, so $x^0 = 1$ for all specializations of $x$ (including zero). Hence why $0^0=1$ is needed to make the binomial theorem and a host of other identities work... because $0^0 = 1$. – user76284 Mar 20 '20 at 02:52
  • @DanChristensen Your proposed "solution" is to basically mutilate the binomial theorem and other similar identities to make special cases for $0^0$ simply because you refuse to accept that $0^0 = 1$ is the natural result given by combinatorial, algebraic, and set-theoretic considerations. – user76284 Mar 20 '20 at 02:59
  • @user76284 "$b^0$ is the number of empty tuples of elements from a set with $b$ elements." Again, if you start only with the initial assumptions I made in my last comment, the result for every combination of base and exponent values on $N$ is fully determined except for $0^0$ for which any value will work. Of course, it is possible to add other requirements to force $0^0=1$ (e.g. your analogy here). Given that $0^0$ is undefined on they reals, I don't think there is any need to do so. See my blog posting on this matter at http://dcproof.com/0-to-the-power-of-0.html EOD – Dan Christensen Mar 20 '20 at 03:14
  • @DanChristensen First, you didn't address the set-theoretic/combinatorial reason why $0^0=1$, which is the most fundamental one. Second, if your definition for exponentiation of reals extends exponentiation for naturals, as it should, then it must agree with the latter when the arguments are naturals. Thus the justification for $0^0=1$ being true in the natural setting carries over into the real setting. – user76284 Mar 20 '20 at 03:37

2 Answers2

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First, the paper's claim

we are unable to prove that if $x_1$ and $x_2$ are exponentiable numbers then so is $x_1 \uparrow x_2$

is clearly very different from the claim

given two counting numbers $x_1$ and $x_2$, $x_1 \uparrow x_2$ is not a counting number

that you paraphrased.

Second, your attempted proof(?) is not valid. You seem to be mixing the theory with some kind of meta-theory, both in terms of notation (like your underscript braces) and manipulations that aren't part of the theory. You need to work within the theory.

To give you an idea of where you're going wrong, assume PA is consistent. Let $\text{Con}_n \, \text{PA}$ be the sentence "PA does not prove a contradiction in fewer than $n$ symbols." Then, for every $n$, $\text{PA} \vdash \text{Con}_n \, \text{PA}$. But that doesn't mean we can conclude $\text{PA} \vdash \forall n (\text{Con}_n \, \text{PA})$, since that would mean $\text{PA}$ is inconsistent! Your "proof" seems to be making a similar kind of mistake.

user76284
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  • To be a bit more concrete, Szmagpie's argument uses induction, which Nelson is careful to point out in the linked publication is not assumed to hold for properties involving counting numbers. – Robin Saunders Dec 08 '24 at 14:17
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I believe it will be helpful to first break down the mathematical claims found in the paper. first work in a system which has a constant $0$ for the number zero and has a function $Sx$ which takes a number and returns a number. It also contains functions $x+y$, $x\times y$ and $x\uparrow y$. Although he is not explicit about the assumed arithmetic axioms it seems clear that he is at least using some of the standard properties of addition and multiplication, so the recursive definitions as you have given them as well as the commutative, assosiative and distributive properties of addition and multiplication.

now to this system he adds a predicate x is a counting number which I will call $C(x)$. he then adds two axioms $C(0)$ and $\forall x.C(x)\rightarrow C(Sx)$. these are the only axioms about $C(x)$ assumed he explicitly does not assume every number is a counting number. He then defines additionable and multiplicable numbers by the definitions $A(x)\leftrightarrow \forall y .C(y)\rightarrow C(y+x)$ and $M(x) \leftrightarrow \forall y .A(y)\rightarrow A(y\times x)$. he then presents proofs using the standard properties of addition that $A(x)\rightarrow C(x)$ and $A(0)\land A(x)\rightarrow A(Sx)$ and that $\forall xy.(A(x)\land A(y))\rightarrow A(x+y)$. He then states the provability without proof of similar results for $M(x)$ including that $\forall xy(M(x)\land M(y))\rightarrow M(x\times y)$. He finally states the claim that it is not provable that $\forall xy.(E(x)\land E(y))\rightarrow E(x\uparrow y)$ for some suitable definition for exponentiable numbers.

These explicitly mathematical claims are all valid. See Fernando and Gilda Ferreria's paper "Interpretabililty in Robinsons Q" for more detail. the claims about additionable and multiplicitable numbers follows from Solovay method of shortening of cuts which in a special case shows that for any cut there are definable subcuts closed under addition and multiplication. $A(x)$ and $M(x)$ are the formulas used to show this. as for the exponentiable numbers the unprovability of there closure under exponentiation follows from this answer.

I think it is also important to note that in the paper Nelson acknowledges that every explicit counting number is exponentiable here is the quote:

For any specific numeral SSS. . . $0$ we can indeed prove that it is an exponentiable number, but we cannot prove that the world of exponentiable numbers is closed under exponentiation. And superexponentiation leads us entirely away from the world of counting numbers.

the issue is he doesn't accept induction for counting numbers so he can not conclude that they are actually closed under exponentiation. as for what he meant by his concluding statement i can think of two reasonable ways to interpret it: that from his implicit axioms you can not prove the totality of exponentiation for counting numbers, even by moving to a definable cut, or the stronger claim that the counting numbers in reality are not closed under exponentiation. Although the weaker claim follows from known results, the stronger claim does not clearly follow from the premises. The only way to show from the basic axioms that some number is not a counting number is to show that there is no way to reduce it's definition to one only involving $S(x)$ and $0$, since $A(x)$ and $M(x)$ contain zero and are closed under successor they satisfy all the basic axioms when you substitute them in for $C(x)$ so the theory can not prove the existance of any counting number that fails to be multiplicitable. Now there is another cut that needs to be mentioned the logarithmic cut. It is defined as $L_2(x)\leftrightarrow A(2\uparrow x)$ note that $2\uparrow0=S0$ so $A(2\uparrow 0)$ is true and since $2\uparrow Sx=2\times (2\uparrow x)=(2\uparrow x)+(2\uparrow x)$ so if $A(2\uparrow x)$ is true so is $A(2\uparrow Sx)$. Since this proof only relies on the fact that $C(x)$ is closed under successor and contains zero we could replace $C(x)$ with any other formula that is also satisfies this and define a logarithmic subcut of that formula including the original logarithmic cut. we can now show that the numbers that satisfy all definable cuts is an undefinable cut that is closed under $x\uparrow y$. first every definable cut is satisfied by zero and if all definable cuts are satisfied by $x$ then for each definable cut it must be the case that $Sx$ also satisfies it. second suppose some definable cut failed to be satisfied by $2\uparrow x$ then the definable logarithmic subcut of that cut would fail to be satisfied by $x$ and so wouldn't satisfy all definable cuts so if all definable cuts are satisfied by $x$ than they are all satisfied by $2\uparrow x$. we get $x\uparrow y$ from the fact that it is always less than $2\uparrow x\times y$. although a definable cut can never be provably closed under exponentiation there is no barrier to one not definable from the base axioms.

in conclusion the mathematical content is accurate, the philosophical conclusions are of course up for debate.