Let $(x_j)\to x$ a sequence on $\Bbb K$, then show that $(\frac1n\sum_{j=1}^n x_j)\to x$
I want to check if this proof for the convergence of Césaro sums is valid. I rewrite the statement to prove as $(\frac1n\sum_{j=1}^n (x_j-x))\to 0$.
Because we have that $(x_j-x)\to 0$ then for any $\epsilon>0$ exists some $N\in\Bbb N$ such that $|x_j-x|<\epsilon$ when $j\ge N$.
Then we have that for $n\ge N$ then
$$\left|\frac1n\sum_{j=1}^{n}(x_j-x)\right|\le\frac1n\sum_{j=1}^{n}|x_j-x|<\frac1n\sum_{j=1}^{N-1}|x_j-x|+\frac1n\sum_{j=N}^{n}\epsilon$$
Then
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\left|\frac1n\sum_{j=1}^{n}(x_j-x)\right|\le\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(\frac1n\sum_{j=1}^{N-1}|x_j-x|+\frac1n\sum_{j=N}^{n}\epsilon\right)=\epsilon$$
Because $\epsilon$ can be chosen arbitrarily small we conclude that $(\frac1n\sum_{j=1}^n (x_j-x))\to 0$, and hence
$$(x_j)\to x\implies \left(\frac1n\sum_{j=1}^n x_j\right)\to x$$
What I dont like of this proof, if correct, is that Im unable to show the convergence of the Cesáro sum with the classic language of $\epsilon-N$, what I did above is a different thing. This is the reason why Im unsure about the correctness of this proof.
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