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I'm not sure how you can prove the base case for the answer to this question. The base case states:

Lemma. If $x \ge 1$ is a rational number and $\alpha\ne 0$ is a real number such that $\lim_{n\to\infty}\alpha x^n-m_n=0$ where $m_n\in\mathbb{N},$ then $x\in\mathbb{Z}$.

Does it also hold if $x$ can be real instead of just rational?

Some attemps: I've thought about raising $m_n$ to some power $p$ and then doing the reverse by raising to power $1/p$ so it gives a tighter bound around $m_n$, but this doesn't appear to work since there may be a lot of integers besides $m_n^p$ within the bound.

simonzack
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  • I don't have a handle on $m_n$. Where does it come from or how is it defined? – B. Goddard Sep 10 '16 at 10:00
  • @B.Goddard It can be anything, if the limit does exist then for large enough $n$ it should always be the closest integer, by taking $\epsilon = 0.5$. – simonzack Sep 10 '16 at 19:34

2 Answers2

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Here's a proof assuming $x$ is rational. Write $x=\frac{a}{b}$ for $a,b\in\mathbb{N}$ in lowest terms. Choose $\epsilon>0$ such that $x\epsilon<\frac{1}{2b}$ and $\epsilon<\frac{1}{2b}$ (actually, the latter is automatic since $x\geq 1$). Choose $N$ such that $|\alpha x^n-m_n|<\epsilon$ for all $n\geq N$ and such that $m_N\neq 0$ (the latter is possible since $x\geq 1$ and $\alpha\neq 0$). In particular, for any $n\geq N$, we can write $$\alpha x^n=m_n+\delta$$ where $|\delta|<\epsilon$ ($\delta$ depends on $n$). Multiplying by $x$, we get $$\alpha x^{n+1}=xm_n+\delta x.$$ Note that $xm_n$ is a rational number with denominator $b$, and $|\delta x|<\frac{1}{2b}$. If $xm_n$ were not an integer, then it would be at least $\frac{1}{b}$ away from an integer, and so $xm_n+\delta x$ would be at least $\frac{1}{2b}$ away from an integer. But by hypothesis, $\alpha x^{n+1}$ is within $\epsilon$ of $m_{n+1}$, and $\epsilon<\frac{1}{2b}$. Thus $xm_n$ must be an integer, and clearly in fact we must have $xm_n=m_{n+1}$.

Thus $xm_n=m_{n+1}$ for all $n\geq N$. But this means $x^km_N=m_{N+k}$ is an integer for all $k\in\mathbb{N}$. This implies $m_N$ is divisible by $b^k$ for all $k$. Since $m_N\neq 0$, this is only possible if $b=1$, i.e. if $x$ is an integer.

Eric Wofsey
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Here is a proof for more general statement: http://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h4556p334225

It's given as a lemma in the solution to problem 27 (section 4.1) in Russian 1987 book В.А.Садовничий, А.А.Григорьян, С.В.Конягин "Задачи студенческих математических олимпиад" ("Problems of mathematical olympiads for university students")