I am aware that there is a similar question here, however I want to prove that $\sum \frac{1}{n}$ for $n$ square free diverges, without relying on the fact that $\sum \frac{1}{p}$ diverges for $p$ prime. This is equivalent to proving that $\sum \frac{|\mu(n)|}{n}$ converges, where $\mu(n)$ is the mobius function. I would like verification that my proof is correct:
My Proof: We begin by noting that $\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}$ converges, and so $$c * \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}$$ must also converge for any positive integer $c$. Therefore, if we look at the sum $\sum \frac{1}{n}$ where $n$ ranges only through the integers that are not squarefree, then this sum must converge because it is the composition of a series of convergent sums. Since $\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n}$ diverges, we must have the sum of the reciprocals of square-free integers also diverging.
In particular, how can I be sure that the sum of the reciprocals of non square-free integers converges? It seems like we are taking an infinite number of convergent sums, which doesn't have to necessarily converge.