Since the meat of your question seems to be about how to prove this claim with induction (even though the other answers provide much shorter and easier proofs), that is how I will choose to approach.
Checking base case: Here, we check that the statement is true for some starting value(s) of $n$. The statement's truth will depend only upon $n$ as $l$ is only used as a shorthand here to make the sum easier to write ($l$ will range between all values from $0$ to $n$ and will not be a specific single number in general)
If you consider $0\in\Bbb N$, we start with the base case of checking if $\sum\limits_{l=0}^0\binom{0}{l}=\binom{0}{0}=\frac{0!}{0!0!}=1=2^0$, so the base case is valid.
Otherwise, for $n=1$ we check that $\sum\limits_{l=0}^1\binom{1}{l}=\binom{1}{0}+\binom{1}{1}=1+1=2=2^1$, so the base case is again valid.
Inductive step: Again, $l$ will be all possible values in the range, so we do not change how $l$ appears in the inductive step. We assume that the statement $2^n = \sum\limits_{l=0}^n \binom{n}{l}$ is true for some $n$ and we wish to prove that from this it follows that it is true for the next value, $n+1$.
Here, we rely on something known as pascal's identity: $\binom{n+1}{r} = \binom{n}{r}+\binom{n}{r-1}$.
Examining the case of $n+1$, we have then:
$$\begin{array}{rlr}\sum\limits_{l=0}^{n+1}\binom{n+1}{l}&=\sum\limits_{l=0}^{n+1}\left(\binom{n}{l}+\binom{n}{l-1}\right)&\text{via pascal's identity}\\
&=\left(\sum\limits_{l=0}^{n+1}\binom{n}{l}\right)+\left(\sum\limits_{l=0}^{n+1}\binom{n}{l-1}\right)&\text{by splitting into separate summations}\\
&=\left(\binom{n}{n+1}+\sum\limits_{l=0}^n\binom{n}{l}\right) + \left(\binom{n}{-1}+\sum\limits_{l=1}^{n+1}\binom{n}{l-1}\right)&\text{by breaking off last and first pieces respectively}\\
&=\left(\sum\limits_{l=0}^{n}\binom{n}{l}\right)+\left(\sum\limits_{l=0}^{n}\binom{n}{l}\right)&\text{broken off terms equalled zero and reindexing of right}\\
&=2^n+2^n&\text{by induction hypothesis}\\
&=2\cdot (2^n)=2^{n+1}&\text{by simplification}\end{array}$$
Hence, it follows that it is true for $n+1$ as well, therefore by induction the statement is true for all $n\in\Bbb N$.