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Does there exist a continuous positive function such that $\int\limits_1^{\infty}f(x)dx$ converges, while $\int\limits_1^{\infty}f^2(x)dx$ diverges? I have proved that if $f$ is decreasing monotonically, then this is false and $\int\limits_1^{\infty}f^2(x)dx$, but what happens when the demand for monotonic drops?

Joshhh
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