The definition of $T_1$-Space is:
A topological space $X$ is said to be $T_1$ if for each pair of distinct points $a,b, $ $\exists$ open sets $U,V$ s.t $a\in U, b\notin U, a\notin V, b\in V$.
What I'm confused about is in a $T_1$ space, all singleton subsets of $X$ are closed.
Let $t,v \in X$.
Then I think the singleton sets $\{t\}$ ,$\{v\}$ satisfy the definition of $T_1$ in $U$ and $V$ what I wrote above.
(i.e $t \in\{t\}$, $v\notin \{t\}$, $t\notin\{v\}$, $v \in\{v\}$.)
I learned the theorem showing this result and I can understand the proof of it, but I'm still confused as to why this is not a counterexample.