Note that by "generate the same topology" we mean that any set that is open with respect to $\lVert\cdot\rVert_1$ is also open with respect to $\lVert\cdot\rVert_2$ and vice versa. By "equivalent" we mean that $\exists m,M>0$ such that $m\lVert x \rVert_2\leq \lVert x \rVert_1 \leq M\lVert x \rVert_2$.
This is part of an old preliminary exam in Analysis I'm using to prep for my own prelim. I have already proven that equivalent $\implies$ same topology, but the other direction is causing me trouble. I've been attempting a reductio, supposing that for some open $A$ we have $\inf_{x\in A} \{m>0: m\lVert x \rVert_2 \leq \lVert x \rVert_1\}=0$. I don't see any contradiction here, though.