I know that in order to derive $f(x) = x^x,$ you have to take the log of both sides first and then derive it to get $f'(x) = x^x(ln(x)+1).$ I know that if you take the derivative directly using the chain rule, you get the wrong answer. Why is this? I assume it has something to do with the fact that the definition of the derivative has $h\rightarrow 0$ and we would potentially have $(x+h)^{x+h} \rightarrow 0^0$ somehow (which is indeterminate form), but I'm not immediately seeing this.
EDIT: So as has been pointed out, this question has been answered elsewhere. Additionally, I did not provide enough information. Specifically: how am I applying the chain rule to get the wrong answer? (And I suppose 'What wrong answer am I getting?')
As it turns out, I couldn't decide which function is the "outside" function and which function is the "inside" function. Initially, I did the power rule first to get $$f'(x) = x\cdot x^{x-1} \cdot (x^x\cdot \ln(x))= x^{2x}ln(x),$$ which we've seen is wrong.