Every set with infinite measure contains a set with finite positive measure.
Define $T = \sup\{ \mu(F) \mid F \subset E,\ \mu(F) < \infty,\ \text{$F$ measurable}\}$.
Clearly $T > 0$ and in fact $T = \infty$. If to the contrary $T < \infty$ then for every $k \ge 1$ there exists a measurable set $F_k \subset E$ with the property that $T - \frac 1k < \mu(F_k) \le T$.
Define $G_k = F_1 \cup \ldots \cup F_k$. Then each $G_k$ is a measurable subset of $E$ with $\mu(G_k) < \infty$ so in fact $\mu(G_k) \le T$.
Define $G = \cup G_k$. Then $G \subset E$, and by the continuity of the measure $\mu(G) \le T$. Since $F_k \subset G_k \subset G$ we obtain $$T - \frac 1k < \mu(G) \le T$$ for all $k$, so that $\mu(G) = T$.
Now, $\mu(E \setminus G) = \infty$ so that $E \setminus G$ contains a measurable set $H$ with positive finite measure. Then $G \cup H \subset E$, and $$\mu(G \cup H) = T + \mu(H) > T$$
contrary to the definition of $T$. Thus $T = \infty$.
At this point the argument is complete, but to recap if $C > 0$ then $C < \sup\{\mu(F) \mid F \subset E,\ \mu(F) < \infty,\ \text{$F$ measurable}\}$ so in particular there exists a measurable subset $F$ of $E$ satisfying $C < \mu(F) < \infty$