As the question says. As according to Euler's formula, $e^{i\pi}+1=0$ thus $e^{i\pi}=-1$, what therefore does $e^{2i\pi} $ equal?
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It equals $(-1)^2 = 1$.
More generally, for a real number $\theta$, we might say that $e^{i \theta}$ is equal to the coordinates of the point on the unit circle at angle $\theta$ with the right horizontal axis, where the coordinates are given as complex numbers. This is sometimes written $$ e^{i\theta} = \cos \theta + i \sin \theta.$$
This might feel funny, but this can be made formal. See for instance this question.
The coordinates of the point at angle $\pi$ are $-1$, and the coordinates of the point at angle $2\pi$ are $1$.
davidlowryduda
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Observe that: $e^{-2\pi i}$ is equal to $(e^{i\pi})^{-2}$; then
$$\frac{1}{e^{2i\pi}}=1$$
InsideOut
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e^-2ipi, with a minus sign. – Did Apr 13 '16 at 22:13