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Let $a,b\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $\forall\epsilon\in\mathbb{R}_{>0}:a<b+\epsilon$. Then $a\le b$.

Proof by contradiction:

Assume $a>b$. Then $a-b>0$. We also have $\forall\epsilon>0:a<b+\epsilon$. This gives $0<a-b<\epsilon$. Let $\epsilon=a-b$. Then $a-b<a-b\implies a<a$. Therefore, by contradiction $a\le b$.

In the proof above I do not understand why we are allowed to fix $\epsilon$ to a value like $a-b$. I would appreciate any help.

Thank you.

Jimmy R.
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johnny09
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2 Answers2

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If you draw a number line, and mark a and b on that line, you can see it.

The statement tells you that, independent of how much you increased b, a is smaller than that.

Then if you assume, a is greater than b (draw it on the number line), then one can argue that if you increase b, say $\epsilon= a-b$ amount (or anything smaller than that!), a is not smaller than $b+\epsilon$ .

Since you are free to choose $\epsilon$, you can run this logic and get a contradiction.

I find it helpful to draw in such proofs.

user2222
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You did not fix $\epsilon$ to some value. What you did is the following:

  1. You are given that: $$\forall \epsilon>0: a<b+\epsilon\tag{1}$$
  2. You assume that (this you want to lead to a contradiction): $$a>b\tag{2}$$

Put together $(1)$ and $(2)$ and this gives you $$0<a-b<ε$$ So, this is already the contradiction. You had that $\epsilon >0$ arbitrary but here - assuming $(2)$ - you get that $\epsilon$ must be larger than $a-b$.

Jimmy R.
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  • Yes, but in the proof I write "Let $\epsilon=a-b$" and I use this value to show explicitly what is going wrong. This fixes the $\epsilon$ to some value. Is this wrong by my part? – johnny09 Apr 02 '16 at 16:48
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    No, this is not wrong. It is fine. You show that there exists an $\epsilon$ namely $\epsilon=a-b$ for which $a<b+\epsilon$ does not hold (actually any $0<\epsilon\le a-b$ would do), despite the fact that is should hold by assumption. So, assuming $(2)$ led you to a contradiction to the validity of $(1)$. – Jimmy R. Apr 02 '16 at 16:51