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Let $A,B$ be $n$-th dimensional complex Hermitian matrices, and suppose that $e^{-iA} = e^{-iB}$. Does this necessarily imply that $A = B$?

If we expand the expression, then then $$ I + iA - \frac{A^2}{2} - i\frac{A^3}{3!}+\ldots = I + iB - \frac{B^2}{2} -i\frac{B^3}{3!}+\ldots $$ but how can this imply $A = B$?

Joshhh
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1 Answers1

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No, because $-iA$ and $-iB$ are skew-Hermitian, and the exponential map $\exp: \mathfrak{u}(n)\rightarrow U(n)$ is not injective in this case - see here.

Dietrich Burde
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