I have trouble seeing where the $\frac{1}{2}$ comes from in $$\frac{df}{dz}=\frac{1}{2}\left ( \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}-i\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\right )$$
For a change of variables $z=x+iy$ we have $$\frac{df}{dz}= \ \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\frac{\partial x}{\partial z}+\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial z}$$ and $\frac{\partial x}{\partial z}=1$ and $\frac{\partial y}{\partial z}=-i$. Therefore we have the above but without the $\frac{1}{2}$. I've seen someone derive the correct expression by including the change of variables for $\overline{z}$ however I don't see how that is necessary, it should work without, right? I don't know what I am missing?