I know this has been asked elsewhere, but I think the values or random variables are different or something.
From Williams' Probability with Martingales:
I proved that $M_n$ is a $\sigma(B_1, ..., B_n)-$martingale and $P(B_n = k) = \frac{1}{n+1}$
I guess $\Theta := \lim M_n$ exists $\because M_n$ is a nonnegative martingale.
So to give the distribution of $\Theta$, I tried to find the moment-generating function, though I'm not sure if we know that $M_{\Theta}(t)$ exists (also tried something else in answer posted):
$$M_{\Theta}(t) = E[\exp(t\Theta)]$$
$$= E[\exp(t\lim \frac{B_n + 1}{n+2})]$$
$$\stackrel{(*)}{=} E[\exp(t\lim \frac{B_{n+1} - B_n}{1})]$$
$$= E[\exp(t\lim (B_{n+1} - B_n))]$$
$$= E[\lim \exp(t (B_{n+1} - B_n))]$$
$$\stackrel{(**)}{=} \lim E[\exp(t (B_{n+1} - B_n))]$$
where
$$E[\exp(t (B_{n+1} - B_n))]$$
$$= E[E[\exp(t (B_{n+1} - B_n)) | B_n]]$$
$$= E[e^{t (0)}(1 - M_n) + e^{t (1)} M_n]$$
$$= E[(1 - M_n) + e^{t} M_n]$$
$$= E[(1 - M_n) + e^{t} M_n]$$
$$= E[(1 - M_n)] + E[e^{t} M_n]$$
$$= (1 - E[M_n]) + e^{t}E[ M_n]$$
$$= (1 - (\frac 1 2)) + e^{t}(\frac 1 2)$$
$$= (\frac 1 2) + e^{t}(\frac 1 2) = (1 + e^{t})(\frac 1 2)$$
Hence, $M_{\Theta}(t) = \lim (1 + e^{t})(\frac 1 2) = (1 + e^{t})(\frac 1 2)$.
Any mistakes?
Any suggestions for alternative solutions? Might I be able to evaluate $\lim (B_{n+1} - B_n)$?
This seems to say that $\Theta \sim Bernoulli (\frac 1 2)$. Is it? I tried $\Theta \sim Beta (\alpha, \beta)$ but it seems like $\alpha = \beta = 0$, which violates the assumptions of $\alpha, \beta > 0$, and I guess $Bernoulli(\frac 1 2)$ is kind of like $Beta(0,0)$ (p. 5-6)?
$(*)$ I used Stolz–Cesàro theorem. Is that right? If not, how else can I approach this problem? If so, is there a way to approach this problem without Stolz–Cesàro (it was never discussed in any class I attended in undergrad and grad)?
$(**)$ I think we can use something like a general bounded convergence theorem as $e^{t (B_{n+1} - B_n)}$ is bounded but not uniformly bounded right? If not, how else can I approach this?
