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Does there exist a field $k$, two positive integers $n > m > 1$, and a surjective group homomorphism $\operatorname{GL}_{n}(k) \to \operatorname{GL}_{m}(k)$?

Here $k$ can be any field, and $\operatorname{GL}_{n}(k)$ is viewed as an abstract group (as opposed to group scheme or Lie group), and this group homomorphism doesn't have to be "algebraic" or "smooth" in any sense. Note that if $m = 1$ then the determinant map gives a surjective map.

Alex Youcis
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Minseon Shin
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    I would try to reduce this to a question about homomorphisms $PSL_n(k) \to PSL_m(k)$ (first by taking the commutator subgroup and then by quotienting by the center; note that the first step sends surjections to surjections and the second step is a well-defined functor on surjective group homomorphisms); most of the time I expect these will be nonisomorphic simple groups and so the only morphism between them is zero. Details seem messy to sort out though. – Qiaochu Yuan Dec 08 '15 at 23:26
  • Hey Minseon, this is kind of random, but it seems plausible to me (although I haven't checked all the details) that Theorem 1.5 of this --- Armand Borel. Jacques Tits. "On “abstract” homomorphisms of simple algebraic groups." Innov. Incidence Geom. Algebr. Topol. Comb. 16 (1) 225 - 234, 2018. https://doi.org/10.2140/iig.2018.16.225

    together with Servaes's answer below should answer your question in the negative. Indeed, one can consider the composition $\mathrm{SL}_n(k)\to\mathrm{PGL}_m(k)$ which seems to still be surjective. If one takes $G=\mathrm{SL}_n$ and $G'$ then loc. cit.

    – Alex Youcis Nov 03 '21 at 03:21
  • seems to show that if $k$ is infinite then any such surjection must come (up to a change of field) comes from an algebraic homomorphism (note that $G_+=G(k)$ since $\mathrm{SL}_n$ is simply connected), which is impossible. – Alex Youcis Nov 03 '21 at 03:22
  • @AlexYoucis Oh cool! Would you please write up your answer? – Minseon Shin Nov 03 '21 at 05:24
  • @MinseonShin I hope I didn't make a mistake below. Please let me know if you see an issue. – Alex Youcis Nov 03 '21 at 07:39
  • @MinseonShin I may have overcomplicated my solution below by using $\mathrm{SL}_n(k)\to\mathrm{PGL}_m(k)$ instead of just using $\mathrm{SL}_n(k)\to\mathrm{SL}_m(k)$ which is surjective, and so Zariski dense by unirationality. But, I thought before that I needed the target group to be adjoint for some reason that I can no longe rremember. If you're interested, you might try to figure out whether or not this is the case. No pressure either way. – Alex Youcis Nov 03 '21 at 09:09

4 Answers4

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This is far from a complete answer, but it's a start and it's too long for a comment.


Let $k:=\Bbb{F}_q$ be a finite field of $q$ elements and let $$\rho:\ \operatorname{GL}_n(k)\ \longrightarrow\ \operatorname{GL}_m(k),$$ be a surjective group homomorphism. Then $\ker\rho\unlhd\operatorname{GL}_n(k)$, so we have either $$\ker\rho\subset Z(\operatorname{GL}_n(k))\qquad\text{ or }\qquad\operatorname{SL}_n(k)\subset\ker\rho.$$ In the latter case $|\operatorname{im}\rho|$ divides $q-1$, contradicting the surjectivity of $\rho$. So the elements of $\ker\rho$ are diagonal matrices and therefore $|\ker\rho|$ divides $(q-1)^n$. Note that $$|\operatorname{GL}_n(k)|=\prod_{i=0}^{n-1}(q^n-q^i)=q^{\tfrac{n(n-1)}{2}}\prod_{i=1}^n(q^i-1),$$ which shows that $|\ker\rho|$ divides the product and so $|\operatorname{im}\rho|$ is divisible by $q^{\tfrac{n(n-1)}{2}}$. But $\rho$ is surjective so $\operatorname{im}\rho=\operatorname{GL}_m(k)$, where $$|\operatorname{GL}_m(k)|=\prod_{i=0}^{m-1}(q^m-q^i)=q^{\tfrac{m(m-1)}{2}}\prod_{i=1}^m(q^i-1),$$ is clearly not divisible by $q^{\tfrac{n(n-1)}{2}}$, a contradiction. So no such group homomorphism exists for finite fields.

Servaes
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I claim that no such homomorphism can exist with the conditions stated. Due to Servaes's answer, we are free to assume in the following that $k$ is infinite.

Suppose that $\phi\colon\mathrm{GL}_n(k)\to\mathrm{GL}_m(k')$ is a surjective homomorphism with $n>m>1$ and $k$ and $k'$ infinite fields.

Observe that a surjection $\mathrm{GL}_n(k)\to\mathrm{GL}_m(k')$ gives a surjection $\mathrm{PGL}_n(k)\to\mathrm{PGL}_m(k')$. Since the target is non-trivial (since $m>1$) and $\mathrm{PGL}_n(k)$ is simple, this implies that $\mathrm{PGL}_n(k)\cong\mathrm{PGL}_m(k')$. Then, by Theorem 1.3 of the Borel--Tits article, we deduce that $k\cong k'$ and $m=n$ since $\mathrm{PGL}_n$ being isogenous to $\mathrm{PGL}_m$ implies that $m=n$.

EDIT: Below is a more complicated attempt, but I'll leave it up in case someone else finds it interesting


Let us consider the induced homomorphism $\varphi$ given by the composition of the following maps

$$\mathrm{SL}_n(k)\hookrightarrow \text{GL}_n(k)\to\mathrm{GL}_m(k)\to\mathrm{PGL}_m(k).$$

Lemma: The map $\varphi$ has Zariski dense image and is non-trivial.

Proof: Let us first show that $\varphi$ has a Zariski dense image. Let $U\subseteq \mathrm{PGL}_m$ be a non-empty Zariski open subset. Note that since the multiplication-by-$m$ map $[m]\colon \mathrm{PGL}_m\to\mathrm{PGL}_m$ is continuous, we have that $[m]^{-1}(U)$ is Zariski open. We claim this set is also non-empty. To do this, it suffices to show that there is an $\overline{k}$-point of $U$ which is an $m^\text{th}$ power. Note though that the regular semisimple elements$^{(\ast)}$ of $\mathrm{PGL}_m$ form a dense open subset (e.g. see [Steinberg, 2.14]), and so $U(\overline{k})$ must contain such an element. But, strongly regular elements belong to a maximal torus $T\cong\mathbb{G}_m^n$ of $\mathrm{PGL}_{n,\overline{k}}$ which are easily seen to have $m^\text{th}$ powers.

So, since $\mathrm{PGL}_m(k)$ is Zariski dense in $\mathrm{PGL}_m$ (e.g. see [Milne, Theorem 17.93]) and so there is a point $g$ in the $k$-points of $[m]^{-1}(U)$. By definition this is of the form $g=h^m$ for $g\in U(k)$ and $h\in\mathrm{PGL}_m(k)$. Note though that $\mathrm{PGL}_m=\mathrm{PSL}_m$ and so one has an exact sequence $$1\to \mu_m(k)\to \mathrm{SL}_m(k)\to \mathrm{PGL}_m(k)\to H^1_\mathrm{fppf}(\text{Spec}(k),\mu_m).$$ Since $H^1_\text{fppf}(\mathrm{Spec}(k),\mu_m)$ is $m$-torsion we see that $g=h^m$ must have trivial image in $H^1_\mathrm{fppf}(\mathrm{Spec}(k),\mu_m)$ and therefore must be in the image of $\mathrm{SL}_m(k)\to\mathrm{PGL}_m(k)$. Note though that since $\phi$ is surjective, it induces a surjection $$\mathrm{SL}_n(k)=\mathrm{GL}_n(k)^\mathrm{der}\to\mathrm{GL}_m(k)^\mathrm{der}=\mathrm{SL}_m(k)$$ (where these equalities hold since $k$ is infinite). This gives the desired density.

The fact that $\varphi$ is non-trivial since $\mathrm{SL}_m(k)\to\mathrm{PGL}_m(k)$ is non-trivial since $m>1$. $\blacksquare$

Note that $\mathrm{SL}_n$ is connected, split, absolutely simple, and simply connected. From this we see that $\mathrm{SL}_n=\mathrm{SL}_n^+$ in the sense of [Borel--Tits] (see Remark 1.4.(i) of op. cit.). Moreover, $\mathrm{PGL}_m$ is connected and absolutely simple. Finally, $\varphi$ is not trivial since $m>1$.

So, by [Borel--Tits, Theorem 1.5] (note that they are missing the assumption that $\varphi$ is not trivial, cf. Theorem 1.2 of op. cit.) one may write $\varphi=\beta\circ\phi$ where $\phi$ is an automorphism of $k$ (as a ring) and $\beta$ is an isogeny $\mathrm{SL}_n\to\mathrm{PGL}_m$. But, this is a contradiction since there are no non-zero isogenies $\mathrm{SL}_n\to\mathrm{PGL}_m$ (since such morphisms are finite, and $\mathrm{dim}(\mathrm{SL}_n)>\mathrm{dim}(\mathrm{PGL}_m)$).

$(\ast)$ Regular semisimple elements are the analogue for general algebraic groups of 'having distinct eigenvalues' for the general linear group.

General comment on difficulty: Most of the 'content' above, beyond the Borel--Tits reference, is due to the annoying fact that $\mathrm{PSL}_n(k)\ne \mathrm{SL}_n(k)/\mu_n(k)$ for a general field $k$. In fact it's equal to the group $\mathrm{PGL}_n(k)=\mathrm{GL}_n(k)/\mathbb{G}_m(k)$. If one is willing to assume that $m$ is invertible in $k$, and that $k^\times=(k^\times)^m$ then basically you can ignore most of the above, and if you are happy to assume that $k$ is algebraically closed (and $m$ is invertible in $k$) then you can basically ignore everything.

General comment on scope: There are almost certainly more 'down-to-earth' ways to attack this literal problem, but it should be pointed out that Borel--Tits reference (and the same logic as above) should in fact show that there aren't surjections $\mathrm{GL}_n(k)\to\mathrm{GL}_m(k')$ where $k$ and $k'$ are any two (infinite?) fields.


References:

[Borel--Tits] Borel, A. and Tits, J., 2018. On “abstract” homomorphisms of simple algebraic groups. ALGEBRAIC GEOMETRY, p.78.

[Milne] Milne, J.S., 2017. Algebraic groups: the theory of group schemes of finite type over a field (Vol. 170). Cambridge University Press.

[Steinberg] Steinberg, R., 1965. Regular elements of semi-simple algebraic groups. Publications Mathématiques de l'IHÉS, 25, pp.49-80.

Alex Youcis
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  • Beautiful answer, Alex. (Minor comment: in the second paragraph below your lemma, the incomplete sentence "Note that $\beta$ evidently is" appears.) – Alex Wertheim Nov 03 '21 at 08:04
  • @AlexWertheim Fixed, thanks! – Alex Youcis Nov 03 '21 at 08:06
  • A surjective map $GL_n(k) \rightarrow GL_m(k)$ for $n > m > 1$ induces a surjective map from the commutator subgroup of $GL_n(k)$ to the commutator subgroup of $GL_m(k)$. The commutator subgroup of $GL_n(k)$ is $SL_n(k)$ (except when $m = 2$ and $k = \mathbb{F}_2$, and this case is easy), so we have a surjective map $SL_n(k) \rightarrow SL_m(k)$. Now the only non-abelian simple composition factor of $SL_n(k)$ and $SL_m(k)$ is $PSL_n(k)$ and $PSL_m(k)$ respectively, so we have an isomorphism $PSL_n(k) \cong PSL_m(k)$. This never happens for $n > m$, which is an old result (Dieudonne?) – spin Nov 04 '21 at 05:58
  • @spin I am not a 'group theorist' (I mostly think about algebraic groups), and so don't know much about the literature of 'group theory'.

    In private discussions me and Minseon realized the easiest way to do this (using Borel--Tits) is that such a surjection induces a surjection $\mathrm{PGL}_n(k)\to\mathrm{PGL}_m(k)$ which, by simplicity, is an isomorphism. Theorem 1.3 of the Borel--Tits article then implies that $\mathrm{PGL}_m$ is isog. to $\mathrm{PGL}_n$ so $m=n$. I am leary about what $\mathrm{PSL}_n(k)$ means for you, but if you have an alternative answer please write it down.

    – Alex Youcis Nov 04 '21 at 06:05
  • I am considering all of this from the "abstract group" point of view (not as algebraic groups), in which case $PSL_n(k) = SL_n(k) / Z(SL_n(k))$. I wrote down an answer below. – spin Nov 04 '21 at 06:25
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Here is a solution:

Suppose that there exists a surjective map $GL_n(k) \rightarrow GL_m(k)$ for $n > m > 1$. This induces a surjective map from the commutator subgroup of $GL_n(k)$ to the commutator subgroup of $GL_m(k)$.

The commutator subgroup of $GL_n(k)$ is $SL_n(k)$ except when $m = 2$ and $k = \mathbb{F}_2$. In the case $k = \mathbb{F}_2$ we have $GL_n(k) = SL_n(k)$, so in any case we can assume that we have a surjective map $SL_n(k) \rightarrow SL_m(k)$.

Now $SL_n(k)$ has a composition series, and it has a unique nonabelian simple composition factor, namely $PSL_n(k) = SL_n(k) / Z(SL_n(k))$. Similarly there is a unique nonabelian simple composition factor of $SL_m(k)$, which is $PSL_m(k)$.

Therefore we must have an isomorphism $PSL_n(k) \cong PSL_m(k)$.

But this is a contradiction, by the following old result:

$PSL_n(k) \cong PSL_m(k')$ implies $n = m$ and $k \cong k'$, except in the following cases: $PSL_2(\mathbb{F}_7) \cong PSL_3(\mathbb{F}_2)$ and $PSL_2(\mathbb{F}_4) \cong PSL_2(\mathbb{F}_5)$.

See p. 106, §9, chapter IV, in "La géométrie des groupes classiques" by Dieudonné.

spin
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  • +1 I don't know this book of Dieudonne, but I would guess that the Borel--Tits article I referenced is a generalization of it--it certainly references this book. – Alex Youcis Nov 04 '21 at 06:31
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Here is an alternative approach, which may require some refining.

Assume $n>m$ and we have a group homomorphism $\phi:\mathrm{GL}_n(k)\to\mathrm{GL}_m(k)$ with non-abelian image.

There is a non-trivial map from the symmetric group $S_{n+1}$ to $\mathrm{GL}_n(k)$, but not to $\mathrm{GL}_m(k)$, so its (non-abelian) image in $\mathrm{GL}_n(k)$ must be contained in the kernel of $\phi$.

Thus the kernel of $\phi$ cannot be central, so it must contain $\mathrm{SL}_n(k)$, but then the image of $\phi$ is abelian. A contradiction.

  • Nice approach! Two thoughts: 1) There is a copy of $S_3$ in $\GL_2(\mathbb{F}2)$ although this may be the only exception (I don't know modular representation theory very well but surely someone has worked it out for $S_n$). 2) Really we only know that the copy of $A{n+1}$ has to die, although this is fine if $n > 3$ since the alternating group is also not abelian. – hunter May 16 '24 at 15:21
  • I was thinking there may be some small cases one has to avoid, hence the need to refine the answer. 2) I was thinking of the standard $n$-dimensional representation of $S_{n+1}$, which as $n>2$ should work.
  • – Andrew Hubery May 16 '24 at 17:54