Prove that a Lipschitz transform $T: \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^n$ maps measurable set to measurable.
Assume the only thing that we know about Lipschitz transform is that we can find $M>0$ such that for any $x,y \in \mathbb{R}^d$,
$|T(x)-T(y)|\leq M |x-y| \tag{1}$
To use any property of Lipschitz transforms rather than above, we have to prove it.
We can prove it as follows:
- $T(\cdot)$ maps every Null set to a Null set (I proved).
- $T(\cdot)$ maps every $F_{\sigma}$ set to a $F_{\sigma}$ set.
- Every measurable set can be written as union of a $F_{\sigma}$ and a Null set. (I proved)
I proved step 2 when $m(F_{\sigma})<\infty$. For a general $m(F_{\sigma})$, we have to first show that the $F_{\sigma}$ can be written as countable union of compact sets, I don't know how to do. Also, the map of each compact set is compact, which I don't know how to prove using just using property (1). Any idea?
(I found a similar question-solution that doesn't address my needs here $f$ maps measurable sets to measurable sets)