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Banach fixed-point theorem states that:

If $(X,d)$ - complete metric space and $f:X\to X$ is contraction mapping. Then exists unique point $x_0$ such that $f(x_0)=x_0.$

And I have the following question:

Is there incomplete metric space in which every contraction mapping has fixed point?

Can anyone give link to proof of this problem please?

I thought on this problem some hours but I haven't any ideas. I guess that it's really hard problem.

RFZ
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  • @Weaam, So what? Sorry but how we conclude from here that $A_j\cup {0}$ is convex and compact? – RFZ Oct 28 '15 at 06:47
  • For a fixed $j$, can you show that $f_j(t) : [0,1] \to \mathbb{R}^2$ defined by $f_j(t) = (t,t/j)$ is continuous? Then it will follow that $f_j([0,1])$ is also compact. – Weaam Oct 28 '15 at 06:55
  • @Weaam, Yes I can. Both $t$ and $t/j$ are continuous on $[0,1]$. Hence $(t,t/j)$ is also continuous on $[0,1]$. Maybe you mean that "$f_j([0,1])$" is also compact? – RFZ Oct 28 '15 at 06:59
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    Is convexity of $f_j([0,1])$ note clear? In any case, if $L_1=(t_1, t_1/j), L_2 = (t_2, t_2/j)$ in $A_j \cup {0}$, then $t_x = (1-x)t_1+t_2 \in [0,1]$ and thus $L_1 + x(L_2-L_1) = (t_x, t_x/j) \in A_j \cup {0}$. – Weaam Oct 28 '15 at 07:11
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    @Weaam. Thanks a lot for your help! Wish you the best! :) – RFZ Oct 28 '15 at 07:14