MIT OCW states http://math.mit.edu/~jspeck/18.01_Fall%202014/Supplementary%20notes/01c.pdf page 3
"We say a function is continuous if its domain is an interval, and it is continuous at every point of that interval.
Example 5. The function $1/x$ is continuous on $(0, ∞)$ and on $(−∞, 0)$, i.e., for $x > 0$ and for $x < 0$, in other words, at every point in its domain. However, it is not a continuous function since its domain is not an interval. It has a single point of discontinuity, namely $x = 0$, and it has an infinite discontinuity there"
So it claims that $f: \mathbb{R} \backslash \{0\} \to \mathbb{R}$, $f(x)=1/x$ is not a continuous function because $\mathbb{R} \backslash \{0\}$ is not an "interval"
Then does it say there cannot exist any continuous function on a disconnected domain? Furthermore, I think, in MITOCW's view, any function cannot be continuous on domains containing isolated points
But I think that in the general topological space $X$ & $Y$, a $f:X \to Y$ is a continuous function iff for each open subset $V$ of $Y$, the set $f^{-1}(V)$ is an open subset of $X$. This condition doesn't require any formal restrictions on a domain.
So I think $f(x)=1/x$ and even sequences (assuming domain $N$ with subspace topology of usual topology) are continuous functions.
Also I found another question here
Uniformly continuous function on a disconnected domain
that makes mention of "uniformly continuous function on disconnected domain" which might assume existence of continuous function whose domain is not an interval.
Am I right? or wrong. If my conception of 'continuity' is wrong, please correct my arguments