I'm asked to derive the validity of Universal Modus Tollens from the validity of Universal Instantiation and Modus Tollens. I'm new to this deriving/proving stuff, so I'm not sure if I'm doing it right, but here's what I came up with:
Universal instantiation says that if (1) is true:
(1) ∀x, P(x) → Q(x)
Then (2) is true for any particular item y
(2) P(y) → Q(y)
Modus Tollens says that if (2) is true and (3) is true:
(3) ~Q(y)
Then (4) is true:
(4) ~P(y)
Therefore if (1) is true, and (3) is true, then (4) is true. In other words, the following argument is valid:
∀x, P(x) → Q(x)
~Q(y)
∴ ~P(y)
And that's Universal Modus Tollens.
Am I doing this right? Am I making any unwarranted assumptions or unsupported claims? Am I skipping any steps?
![[(P\rightarrow Q)\wedge \sim Q] \rightarrow \sim P](../../images/5cd2da0566085fd219949e0dfe9d6ac1.webp)
due to the identity rule, then
. Now distribute
to get
.
is a contradiction, or a negation law. Thus
.
.
, assuming
. Thus
is the definition of Decomposing a conjunction in the laws of Tautology. Please refer to page 7 of the following link: