I am looking for some advice/help in regard to the proof that Q is dense in R, given in Walter Rudin's book "Principles of Mathematical Analysis". Mostly, I want to see if my reasoning is correct for some parts, and what I am not picking up as well.
I will post below the specific theorem and proof that I am referring to,
(Also I will include the archimedian property that I am referring to for convince to anyone who may be reading)
(archimedian property): "If $x \in R$ , $y \in R$ and $x \gt 0$ then there is a positive integer n such that $nx \gt y$"
$\mathbf{Theorem:}$
If $x \in R$ , $y \in R$ and $x \lt y$ then there exists a $p \in Q$ such that $x \lt p \lt y$.
$\mathbf{Proof:}$
We have $$x \lt y$$ so , $$y-x \gt 0$$ thus we can use the archimedean property of R and say that there must exist a positive integer n such that
$$n(y-x) \gt 1$$ ( I believe we just choose 1 for convince, as the property will hold for any R?).
Now here is where I get confused, the author then writes " apply the archimedean property again, to obtain positive integers $m_{1}$ and $m_{2}$ such that $m_{1} \gt nx$ and $m_{2} \gt -nx$, then $-m_{2} \lt nx \lt m_{1}..$
My question is, what are applying the property to now? I am just not seeing where this comes from, also because the property required us that $x \gt 0$ and here we only have $y-x \gt 0$, so how does this all tie in together?
I appreciate any help/advice, thanks all!