I came upon this question here which contains the following statement:
It is easy to prove that if $A \subset \mathbb{R}$ is null (has measure zero) and $f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is Lipschitz then $f(A)$ is null. You can generalize this to $\mathbb{R}^n$ without difficulty.
I believe that Lipschitz here refers to Lipschitz continuity.
When I saw the statement it seemed to me that Lipschitz continuity was too strong. For example, Lipschitz continuous implies continuous. Is it conceivable that a continuous (read "nice") function maps a measurable set to a non measurable set?
It seems to me that this would be the only case for which the image can have non zero measure since it seems intuitively imperative that any image cannot have larger measure than the original set.
Please could someone enlighten me on the minimal condition for which $f: \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R^m$ maps null sets to null sets? And if possible point out any mistakes in my thoughts above, I would greatly appreciate it.
Note: I expect the answer to be that $f$ should be measurable or some similarly weak condition.