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Let $A \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times m}$, $B \in \mathbb{R}^{m \times n}$. Can we prove that $AB$ and $BA$ share all nonzero eigenvalues?

Based on comments here, this appears to be possible.

pwensing
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1 Answers1

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Hint: if $AB u = \lambda u$, what can you say about $BA (Bu)$?

Robert Israel
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