Is it possible to define a negation in intuitionistic linear logic, the way one does in intuitionistic logic, i.e. $A^{\bot} \equiv A \multimap \mathbf{0}$ (or, as it would be written in intuitionistic logic, $\neg A \equiv A \to \bot$)?
While I can prove, e.g. the theorem... $$A^{\bot\bot}\otimes B^{\bot\bot}\vdash(A\otimes B)^{\bot\bot}$$
...I cannot prove... $$(A\otimes B)^{\bot\bot}\vdash A^{\bot\bot}\otimes B^{\bot\bot}$$
...without copying the assumption $(A\otimes B)^{\bot\bot}$ to both subproofs $A^{\bot\bot}$ and $B^{\bot\bot}$. Even though I end up only using the $A$ and $B$ parts once, I still have to copy the assumption.
Edit: For completeness' sake, the system I'm using is the one introduced in Philip Wadler's, A Taste of Linear Logic.
Edit: Just to make sure, I checked, and $(A\otimes B)^{\bot\bot}\equiv A^{\bot\bot}\otimes B^{\bot\bot}$ is a theorem of linear logic under the axiomatisation on the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy (as it should be).
Edit: Sequent Calculi for Intuitionistic Linear Logic with Strong Negation by Norihiro Kamide seems to be a relevant publication.