Claim Let $R$ be a ring (with unity) and $S, T$ be subrings of $R$. Then $S \cup T$ is a subring of $R$ if and only if $S \subset T $ or $T \subset S$.
Proof: $\Leftarrow$ is clear, as in this case we have $S \cup T=S$ or $S \cup T=T$
$\Rightarrow$ Assume by contradiction this is not true, then there exists $s \in S \backslash T$ and $t \in T \backslash S$.
Since $s,t \in S \cup T$ it follows that $s+t \in S \cup T$ and hence $s+t \in S$ or $s+t \in T$.
In the first case we get
$$t=(s+t)-s \in S$$
while in the second we have
$$s=(s+t)-t \in T$$
Contradiction.
Note It is irrelevant if $R$ is finite or infinite.
P.S. For finite fields, one can use the fact that the multiplicative group is cyclic to prove a stronger result:
If $R$ is a finite ring, it is possible to find subrings $T_1,..,T_n$ so that pairwise they are not included in eachother, and the union is a ring, but we must have $n \geq 3$.
If $K$ is a finite field, and $T_1,..,T_n$ are subfields such that their union is a subfield, then there exists a $j$ so that $T_j$ contains all other $T_i$.