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Let $(A,d)$ be the space $\mathbb{N}^{\mathbb{N}}$ of sequences of positive integers where $d((a_i)_i, (b_i)_i)= \frac{1}{n}$ where $n$ is the least coordinate at which $(x_i)_i$ and $(y_i)_i$ disagree (so $a_j = b_j$ for $j<n$).

  1. Show $(A,d)$ is complete metric space.

  2. Show $A$ is not a countable union of compact sets.

My progress: For (1) I was able to show two properties for $(A,d)$ to be a metric space, but for the inequality one, I don't see how this can be true from the given definition of the distance function $d((a_i)_i, (b_i)_i)$. About the completeness part, I also have the same problems when trying to prove any Cauchy sequence with $d((a^{(m)}_i)_i, (a^{(n)}_i)_i) < \epsilon$ for every $m, n > M$ for some $M>0$.

For (2), I couldn't make much progress.

ghjk
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    The other half can be found here. – user642796 May 02 '15 at 04:33
  • (b) For each natural number $n$ let $\pi_n:\Bbb N^{\Bbb N }\to\Bbb N$ be the projection onto $n-$th coordinate. If $x=(x_i)$ and $y=(y_i)$ are elements of the space $A$, and $d(x,y)<1/n$, then $\pi_n(x)=\pi_n(y)$, so the map $\pi_n$ is continuous. Let $K$ be a compact subset of the space $A$. Then for each $n$ the set $\pi_n(K) $ is a compact subset of the space $\Bbb N$, and therefore the set $\pi_n(K) $ is finite. Let ${K_n}$ be an arbitrary sequence of compact subsets of the space $A$. – Alex Ravsky May 02 '15 at 04:44
  • Since for each $n$ the set $\pi_n(K_n) $ is finite, there exists a point $a_n\Bbb N\setminus \pi_n(K_n)$. Then the point $a=(a_n)\in A\setminus\bigcup K_n$. – Alex Ravsky May 02 '15 at 04:44

1 Answers1

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Since for me $\Bbb N$ includes $0$, which is inconsistent with the defintion of $d$, I’ve written $\Bbb Z^+$ instead.

For the triangle inequality, let $x=\langle x_k:k\in\Bbb Z^+\rangle$ and $y=\langle y_k:k\in\Bbb Z^+\rangle$ be distinct points of $A$, and suppose that $d(x,y)=\frac1n$. Let $z=\langle z_k:k\in\Bbb Z^+\rangle\in A$; we want to show that

$$d(x,z)+d(z,y)\ge\frac1n\;.\tag{1}$$

If not, then $d(x,z)<\frac1n$ and $d(z,y)<\frac1n$, which means that $x_k=z_k=y_k$ for $k\le n$. But then $d(x,y)\le\frac1{n+1}$, contradicting the original assumption. Thus, at least one of $d(x,z)$ and $d(z,y)$ is $\frac1n$ of more, and $(1)$ holds.

For each $n\in\Bbb Z^+$ let $x^{(n)}=\langle x_k^{(n)}:k\in\Bbb Z^+\rangle\in A$, let $\sigma=\langle x^{(n)}:n\in\Bbb Z^+\rangle$, and suppose that $\sigma$ is a Cauchy sequence in $A$; we want to show that $\sigma$ converges to some point of $A$. Since $\sigma$ is Cauchy, for each $\epsilon>0$ there is an $r_\epsilon\in\Bbb Z^+$ such that $d(x^{(m)},x^{(n)})<\epsilon$ whenever $m,n\ge r_\epsilon$. In particular, for each $s\in\Bbb Z^+$ there is an $r_{1/s}\in\Bbb Z^+$ such that $d(x^{(m)},x^{(n)})<\frac1s$ whenever $m,n\ge r_{1/s}$. But $d(x^{(m)},x^{(n)})<\frac1s$ if and only if $x_k^{(m)}=x_k^{(n)}$ for each $k\le s$, so we’re saying that

for each $s\in\Bbb Z^+$ there is an $r_{1/s}\in\Bbb Z^+$ such that whenever $m,n\ge r_{1/s}$, then $x_k^{(m)}=x_k^{(n)}$ for each $k\le s$.

  • Show that this implies that for each $k\in\Bbb Z^+$, the sequence $\langle x_k^{(n)}:n\in\Bbb Z^+\rangle$ is eventually constant: there are some $x_k\in\Bbb Z^+$ and some $m_k\in\Bbb Z^+$ such that $x_k^{(n)}=x_k$ for all $n\ge m_k$.

  • Then let $x=\langle x_k:k\in\Bbb Z^+\rangle$, and show that $\sigma$ converges to $x$.

For part (b), suppose that $A=\bigcup_{n\in\Bbb Z^+}K_n$, where each $K_n$ is closed. Because $A$ is a complete metric space, it’s a Baire space, so there must be an $n\in\Bbb Z^+$ such that $K_n$ has non-empty interior.

  • Show that there is a finite sequence $\langle a_1,\ldots,a_m\rangle$ of positive integers such that $$B=\{\langle x_k:k\in\Bbb Z^+\rangle\in A:x_k=a_k\text{ for }k\le m\}$$ is a clopen subset of $K_n$.

  • Show that $B$ is not compact. (In thinking about this you may or may not find it helpful to notice that $B$ is homeomorphic to $A$: it’s really just $\{\langle a_1,\ldots,a_m\rangle\}\times A$, where $\langle a_1,\ldots,a_m\rangle\in(\Bbb Z^+)^m$.)

  • Conclude that $K_n$ is not compact.

Remark: It’s hardly obvious, but as a topological space $A$ is homeomorphic to $\Bbb R\setminus\Bbb Q$ with the topology that it inherits from $\Bbb R$, though $d$ is very different from the Euclidean metric (since the latter is not a complete metric on $\Bbb R\setminus\Bbb Q$).

Brian M. Scott
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