Let $S=\prod_{i=1}^{n}{R_i}$ where each $R_i$ is a commutative ring with identity. The prime ideals of $S$ are of the form $\prod_{i=1}^{n}{P_i}$ where for some $j$, $P_j$ is a prime ideal of $R_j$ and for $i\neq j$, $P_i=R_i$.
3 Answers
It is clear that any ideal of $S$ of the form stated above is prime. Let $P$ be a prime ideal of $S$. For $1\leq k\leq n$, let $e_k$ be the element of $S$ whose $k$th coordinate is $1$ and all other coordinates are $0$. $P$ is proper, so some $e_j$ (say $e_1$) is not in $P$. For $k\neq 1$ we have $e_{1}e_k=0\in P$, so $e_k\in P$. Thus $0\times \prod_{i=2}^{n}{R_i}\subseteq P$. Let $\pi_1\colon S\to R_1$ be the canonical projection. Then $\pi_1(P)$ is a prime ideal of $R_1$ and $P=\pi_1(P)\times \prod_{i=2}^{n}{R_i}.$
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Let $R_{1}$ and $R_{2}$ be two commutative rings with unity.
Let $P$ be a prime ideal in $S=R_{1} \times R_{2}$.
Let $ P= P_{1} \times P_{2}$ where $P_{1}$ is a ideal in $R_{1}$ and $P_{2}$ is a ideal in $R_{2}$.
Then $S/P \simeq R_{1}/P_{1} \times R_{2}/P_{2} $.
In the whole quotient ring we have $(\hat 1,0)(0,\hat 1)=(0,0)$, hence one of $\hat 1$ it must be zero in the summand quotient ring which means $R_1/P_1 =0$ or $R_2/P_2 =0$. And the whole quotient ring which is integral domain will isomorphism to the non zero summand ring, which will turn to be a integral ring, hence its factor will be a prime ideal.
Therefore only one of the $P_{1}$ or $P_{2}$ is a prime ideal and other should be corresponding ring.
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The other ideal should be the corresponding ring. Thanks for pointing that out, I think the proof is complete now. – awCwa Mar 16 '17 at 12:43
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Why you know they are isomorphic ? I don't understand what implies that the product of two integral domains is not an integral domain. – Vegan Maths Jun 08 '20 at 20:10
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@VeganMaths in the product of two integral domains there are two non zero elements namely (1,0) and (0,1), whose product is (0,0). This is what makes product of two or more integral domains not an integral domain. – awCwa Jul 10 '20 at 09:52
I think this is short: Take any prime ideal $P$ of $S$ and an element $\underline{p} = (p_1,\dots,p_n) \in P$. After seeing that $\underline{p} = (p_1,1,\dots,1)(1,p_2,1,\dots,1)(1,1,\dots,p_n)$ and and that $P$ contains one of these tuples, the result becomes clear.
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Thus there is $(xy,t_1,t_2,...) \in P$. $P$ is prime, thus $(x,t_1,t_2,...) \in P$ or $(y,1,1,...) \in P$. Hence $x \in \pi_1(P)$ or $y \in \pi_1(P)$.
– Emolga Feb 01 '16 at 17:41