Let $S^{1} \subset \mathbb{R}^2$ be the circle, and let $\pi_i : S^1 \to \mathbb{R}$ the natural projections. Let $\pi_{1}^{-1} ( [0,\frac{1}{2}]) \subset S^1$.
Is $\pi_{1}^{-1} ( [0,\frac{1}{2}])$ compact?
I think it is, but I don't know how to prove it.
This question comes from the fact that most probably I have misunderstood a comment I received in another question. Anyway, this question is particularly important for me, because I have quite some problems with proving that a specific space is compact.
Any feedback or help is most welcome.
Thank you for your time.