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I know that there exists such a set $(U\setminus A)$ for which $C \setminus A = C \cap B$. However I have trouble proving that it is unique.

What I am trying to do is prove that $\forall D\in P(U)(C\setminus A = C\cap D \Rightarrow D=U\setminus A)$. I first assume $C\setminus A = C\cap D$ and try to prove $D=U\setminus A$, but this leads to nowhere. Any suggestions on how to approach this problem ?

alexgiorev
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1 Answers1

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Let $B,D$ be such that for every $C\in P(U)$ we have $C\setminus A=C \cap D$ and $C\setminus A=C \cap B$. Then we have $C\cap D=C\setminus A = C\cap B$ for every $C\in P(U)$. In particular for $C=D$ we get $D\cap D = D = D\cap B$ and thus $D\subset B$, now taking $C=B$ will imply $B\subset D$.

Surb
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