It has been a while since I studied algebraic topology, and I wanted to revisit homotopy theory. Determined to take a more sustainable approach, I started by questioning and verifying every result in one of my books, Switzer's Algebraic Topology - Homology and Homotopy.
So in the preliminaries, the compact-open topology on the set $Y^X$ of functions $f: X \to Y$ is defined to be generated by:
$$N_{U,K} = \{f: X \to Y \mid f(K) \subseteq U\},\quad U \subseteq Y \text{ open}, K \subseteq X \text{ compact}$$
One of the principal properties of a topology on $Y^X$ would be that it makes the evaluation mapping $e: Y^X \times X \to Y, e(f,x) = f(x)$ continuous (I know that this applies to the COT only under extra conditions, notably if $X$ is locally compact).
So, for $U \subseteq Y$ open we expect $e^{-1}(U)$ to be open in the product topology. This amounts to, for every $x$ with $f(x) \in U$ for some $f$, the existence of a neighborhood $V_x$ such that there is a neighborhood $T$ in $Y^X$ with $f(V_x) \subseteq U$ for each $f \in T$.
However, taking such $T$s as generators -- explicitly:
$$T_{U,V} = \{f \mid f(V) \subseteq U\} \quad V \subseteq X, U \subseteq Y \text{ open}$$
gives rise to a different topology than the compact-open topology. So what compelling reasons are there to consider the compact-open topology rather than the one I just described? If applicable, historical references are also appreciated.
In particular, I'm interested in results where we can see that the properties of the COT are really "needed" for the proof to follow through.