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I need to show that there exists a homeomorphism between $S^1\times \Bbb{R}$ and $\Bbb{R}^2\setminus\{(0,0)\}$

If we map $(\cos x, \sin x,y) \to (y\cos x,y\sin x)$ then only problem is that it is taking value $(0,0)$. Can we modify this or will any other map work?

Mathronaut
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