Show that $$\vdash [\forall x(P(x))\wedge \forall x(Q(x))]\to \forall x[P(x)\wedge Q(x)]$$
My answer: by Q_{1}, it is the case that $\forall x \phi\to\phi_{t}^{x}$ so we have
$$\forall x P(x)\to P(t)$$
We also have
$$\forall x Q(x)\to Q(t)$$
Then $$ (\forall x)P(x)\wedge(\forall x)Q(x)\to P(t)\wedge Q(t)$$ and by QR $ P(x)\wedge Q(x)\to (\forall x)P(x)\wedge Q(x)$
so we get $$\vdash [(\forall x)(P(x))\wedge(\forall x)Q(x))]\to(\forall x)[P(x)\wedge Q(x)]$$
it is correct?