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Let $f:[0, 1] \to \mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function such that $\int^1_0 f(x)x^ndx=0$ $\forall n \in \mathbb{N}$. Show that $f \equiv 0$ in [0, 1].

I need help.

femonto
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1 Answers1

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Hint

  • Using the linearity of the integral and with the hypothesis we get

$$\int_0^1 f(x)p(x)dx=0$$ for every polynomial $p$