Is there any interpretation of this confounding result in the physical world that someone not so math-savvy can understand?
We all learn about long division in primary school. And long division is one particular way to generate an infinite series with. Using long division you can derive the formula for the expansion of the function $\frac{1}{1-x}$ in powers of $x$ of
$$\frac{1}{1-x} = 1 + x + x^2 + \ldots \tag{1} $$
But thsi doesn't converge for $|x|\geq 1$. But how are we then to interpret this divergent series for the case $|x|\geq 1$? My opinion diverges a bit from most other people, I insist that we go back to what the math actually is telling us when we derive the series (1).
Does the math tell us to sum an infinite number of terms of (1)? No, it doesn't! When you derive (1) using algebra pof long division, you are not using any concepts of analysis like taking the limit of the partial sums. And addition is only defined from the fundamental axioms for a finite number of terms anyway. So, the math used to generate the series cannot possibly tell you that you need to sum an infinite number of terms of (1).
What the math does tell you is that the expression you are calculating is given by a finite number of terms of the series you are generating plus a reminder term. We all learn about the remainder in primary school when learning about long division! You can choose where you truncate the series, and there is then a remainder term corresponding to the point where you decide to truncate the series.
So, what the math itself is telling you is that (1) should be interpreted as:
$$\frac{1}{1-x} = \sum_{k=0}^{n}+ R(n) \tag{2} $$
where $R(n)$ is the remainder term corresponding to truncating the infinite series at the nth term. And this is then valid for both divergent and convergent series.
When the series converges, the limit of $n$ to infinity of the remainder term will be zero (strictly speaking it can tend to any value, but a nonzero value implies that the expanded function not analytic). So, in case of a convergent series, the limit of the partial sums will yield the correct value of the series. In case of a divergent series, the value of the series can be perfectly finite, despite the limit of the partial sums not existing. This is not a contradiction because the limit of $R(n)$ for $n$ to infinity doesn't exist in this case, so we don't get rid of the unknown $R(n)$ by taking this limit.
As I've pointed out in detail here, Ramanujan summation can be interpreted as a formula for the remainder term. And oen can on that basis also derive that the value of an infinite series for which the partial sum of the first $n$ terms is $S(n)$, is given by:
$$\operatorname*{con}_{N}\int_{N-1}^N S(x) dx$$
where $\displaystyle \operatorname*{con}_{N}$ denotes the constant term in the large $N$ expansion of the expression. So, in case of the sum of the positive integers, we have $S(x) = \frac{1}{2} x (x+1)$, and:
$$\int_{N-1}^N S(x) dx = \frac{N^2}{2} - \frac{1}{12}$$
The constant term is then $-\frac{1}{12}$. The interpretation of this is then that whenever the series $\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} k$ arises as a result of computing some well-defined quantity using a method that then generates this infinite series, that the value of that quantity is $-\frac{1}{12}$ when assuming that the quantity as a function of the expansion parameter doesn't have any additional nonanalytic behavior than implied by the series.
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1055648/
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/39802/
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1515267/
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1510662/
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1470036/ – Gottfried Helms Jan 08 '16 at 11:16