I know that the series $\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\sin k}{k}$ converges (to $\frac{\pi - 1}{2}$), though by crazy stuff with Dirichlet Kernels or by reverse-engineering $\frac{\pi - x}{2} = \sum \frac{\sin (kx)}{k}$ using Fourier Series.
My question instead: Is $\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\sin k}{k}$ absolutely convergent?
My gut instinct is no: It behaves not-much-better than $\sum \frac1k$, but that's certainly not a rigorous proof.