0

It is said that the intuitive meaning of $\mu$ is finite looping where as the intuitive meaning of $\nu$ is infinite looping in $\mu$ calculus. I understand this for finite systems, but why is this true in general?

Is there any theorem which proves this ?

Raphael
  • 73,212
  • 30
  • 182
  • 400
e_noether
  • 1,329
  • 2
  • 13
  • 19

1 Answers1

1

It is said that the intuitive meaning of μ is finite looping where as the intuitive meaning of ν is infinite looping in μ calculus

Here's a better phrasing: µ is about looping with a known bound on the number of iteration. For ν we do not necessarily know the bound, and there may in fact not even be one.

Is there any theorem which proves this ?

Theorems can not prove how apt an intuition is. The property you have in mind follows from the definitions and can be illustrated by some examples.

Raphael
  • 73,212
  • 30
  • 182
  • 400