As a matter of fact,
$$\lim_{x\to \infty}\frac{\log_2(x^x)}{\log_2(x!)}=1.$$
So there is no problem to reconcile.
Looking at the first revision of the question, it seems to me that you are confused about the fact that $\frac{n^n}{n!}$ has different behaviour from $\frac{\log n^n}{\log n!}$:
$$\lim_{n\to+\infty}\frac{n^n}{n!}=+\infty,\qquad\text{while}\qquad\lim_{n\to+\infty}\frac{\log(n^n)}{\log(n!)}=1<+\infty.$$
There is no problem with this. Unboundedness of ratios of functions is not preserved by applying arbitrary functions such as $\log$, because $\exp$ (the inverse of $\log$) is not polynomially bounded. For a simpler example,
$$\lim_{n\to+\infty}\frac{n^2}{n}=+\infty,\qquad\text{while}\qquad\lim_{n\to+\infty}\frac{\log(n^2)}{\log(n)}=2<+\infty.$$
In general, a function $h\colon\mathbb R_{>0}\to\mathbb R_{>0}$ satifies the condition that
$$\limsup_{n\to+\infty}\frac{f(n)}{g(n)}<+\infty\implies\limsup_{n\to+\infty}\frac{h(f(n))}{h(g(n))}<+\infty$$
for all $f,g\colon\mathbb N\to\mathbb R_{>0}$ if and only if there exists a constant $c$ such that
$$y\le2x\implies h(y)\le ch(x)\tag1$$
for all $x,y\in\mathbb R_{>0}$. For example, (1) holds for all function of the form $h(x)=x^\alpha$ for some $\alpha$. On the other hand, any function $h$ satisfying (1) is polynomially bounded, specifically, $h(x)=O(x^{\lceil\log_2c\rceil})$.