I know that:
Point 1: Set of languages accepted by $LR(0)$ parsers $\subset$ Set of languages accepted by $SLR(1)$ parsers
Does this logic hold for higher $k$'s? That is, does following fact hold?
Point 2: Set of languages accepted by $LR(k)$ parsers $\subset$ Set of languages accepted by $SLR(k+1)$ parsers, for $k=1,2,...$
Also I have just came across the fact that every $LR(k)$ language is parseable by $LR(1)$ parser. So, I guess, point 2 seems trivial for $k>2$ and all we need to prove is:
Whether $LR(1)\subset SLR(2)$ ?
Is it so?
PS: I have not read this paper and dont know if it is related, but linking it anyway: SLR(k) covering for LR(k) grammars
