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Usually whenever these functions pop up in the computation of a proper integral, one is stucked finding their antiderivative.

Has it been proved that their antiderivative has no closed form in terms of a polynomial in $sin, cos, tan, exp, ln,... $?

EDIT: the question is indeed a duplicate.

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Gabriel Romon
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    This has been proven. The answers to a similar question contain good references: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/155/how-can-you-prove-that-a-function-has-no-closed-form-integral – Hugh Denoncourt Feb 01 '14 at 19:12

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