Question: Is there not a contradiction between (1) the answer of Qiaochu Yuan to this question and (2) the answer of Georges Elencwajg to that question in the case $n=2$?
In (1) the question is about the quotient $Q$ of $\mathbb{C}^n$ by the group action of $\mathbb{Z}_n$ via cyclically permuting the coordinates. In the case $n=2$, the answer boils down to $Q$ being homeomorphic to $\mathbb{C} \times A := \mathbb{C} \times \{z \in \mathbb{C} : 0 \leq \text{arg}(z) < \pi \}$. This results from the action being conjugate to the $\mathbb{Z}_2$-action given by flipping the second coordinate and leaving the first fixed; i.e. by $(z_1, z_2) \mapsto (z_1, - z_2)$ and the quotient of $\mathbb{C}$ by $z \mapsto -z$ being $A$.
In (2) the question is about continuity of the solutions of a polynomial over $\mathbb{C}$ in terms of its coefficients. Let $p(z) = \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} c_k z^k = \prod_{k=0}^{n-1} (a_k - z)$ be a polynomial over $\mathbb{C}$. Then the map $v: \mathbb{C}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{C}^n; (a_0, \ldots, a_{n-1}) \mapsto (c_0, \ldots, c_{n-1})$ is polynomial and invariant under the $S_n$-action on $\mathbb{C}^n$ given by permuting the components. Hence $v$ descends to a map $w:\mathbb{C}^n/S_n \rightarrow \mathbb{C}^n$ and the answer claims that this is a homeomorphism.
But in the case $n=2$, by (1) and $\mathbb{Z}_2 = S_2$ there cannot be such a homeomorphism; e.g. since $\mathbb{C} \times A$ is not a manifold.
What am I missing here?
Thank you very much in advance for any input.