$\mathbf{The \ Problem \ is}:$ Show that if $R$ is a unique factorization domain such that the quotient field of $R$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$, then R is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}.$
$\mathbf{My \ approach}:$ Enough to show that $R$ is a field. Suppose not, then $R$ contains a prime(/irreducible) elememt $p.$ Let $Q(R)$ be the quotient field of $R$ and $\phi:Q(R)\to \mathbb{R}$ is a field isomorphism. Now, we can localize $R$ at the prime ideal $\langle p\rangle.$ Then $R_p$ is a subring of $Q(R),$ then I was thinking to compute $\phi(R_p).$ Also, we can consider the all possible $n$-th roots of $r:=\phi(\frac{p}{1})(\neq 0)$ for $r>0$ and all odd radicals of $r$ for $r<0.$ For $r>0$ and $n>1,$ we get a sequence $\bigl\{\frac{a_n}{b_n}\bigr\}_n\in Q(R)$ and without loss of generality, we can assume that $gcd(a_n,b_n)=1$ such that $\phi\bigl({\bigl(\frac{a_n}{b_n}\bigr)}^n\bigr)=r=\phi(\frac{p}{1})$ which implies $a_n^n=pb_n^n\implies p\mid a_n$ as $gcd(a_n,b_n)=1$ and also $a_n\mid p\implies p\sim a_n$(associates). So, $b_n^n\sim p^{n-1}\implies p\mid b_n$ (as $n>1$), contradicting $gcd(a_n,b_n)=1.$ Does this seem correct ?
Any hint is really appreciated.