In Herstein's Topic in Algebra he writes
Let $F$ be a finite field having $q$ elements (if you wish, think of $J_p$ with its $p$ elements). Viewing $F$ merely as a group under addition, since $F$ has $q$ elements, by Corollary 2 to Theorem 2.4.1, $$ \underbrace{a + a + \dots + a}_{q \text{-times}} = qa = 0.$$
But he also writes
For simplicity of notation we shall henceforth drop the dot in $a \cdot b$ and merely write this product as $ab$.
But $q$ is not necessarily element of field $F$, so how does $qa = 0$ come?