24

$\mathbb R^2$ carries the Euclidean topology.

Question:
Does there exist a subset $A$ of $\mathbb R^2$, which is homeomorphic to the half open interval $[0, 1)$, and which separates the plane, i.e. $\mathbb R^2 \setminus A$ is not connected?

Notes

  1. The most obvious $A$, which are homeomorphic to $[0, 1)$ do not separate the plane, for instance $[0, 1) \times \{0\}$, $[0, \infty) \times \{0\}$, subsets of the circle etc.
  2. (removed, see below)
  3. If $A$ is homeomorphic to the open interval $(0,1)$, instead, there are trivial examples, which separate the plane (e.g., the $x$-axis), or not (e.g., $(0,1) \times \{0\}$).
  4. If $A$ is homeomorphic to the closed interval $[0,1]$, instead, it never separates the plane. This is the Jordan arc theorem, for instance see here for a short and elegant proof based on the Brouwer fixed-point-theorem. In fact, all proofs, which I am aware of, are non-trivial!
  5. If the answer to the question is "no", I would therefore expect, that its proof is also non-trivial. Or, perhaps, it can be deduced from the Jordan arc theorem?
  6. There are a lot of results in the literature dealing with compact sets separating or not separating the plane (for instance, the famous Jordan curve theorem). But I haven't found anything relevant to non-compact sets. Therefore, I would also appreciate references in this direction.
  7. Is it of any relevance to assume that $A$ is bounded or unbounded?
  8. Note that subsets separating the plane need not contain closed curves, for instance the Warsaw circle. But, of course, the Warsaw circle is not homeomorphic to $[0,1)$.

Update

  1. I was wrong with my Note 2., where I stated that a dense $A$ homeomorphic to $[0, 1)$ exists. Therefore I delete 2. Of course, this does not influence the question itself.
  2. the comments so far show that there are A such that $\mathbb R^2 \setminus A$ is not path connected. But all the examples so far don't seem to answer the question.
Ulli
  • 6,241
  • 3
    How about the image of $f(x) = (1 - x, \sin(1/(1 - x)) / (1 - x))$, where $x \in [0, 1)$? – kaba Sep 21 '24 at 13:36
  • 3
    Perhaps simpler: let $g(x) = \sin(1/x)/x$ where $x \in (0, 1]$, and then the graph of $x$ is homeomorphic to $(0, 1]$ (since $g$ is continuous), which is homeomorphic to $[0, 1)$. – kaba Sep 21 '24 at 13:42
  • A bounded example:$$f(x) = \left(1 + \frac{1}{1-x}\right)\left(\cos\left(\frac{1}{1 - x}\right), \sin\left(\frac{1}{1 - x}\right)\right).$$ – Theo Bendit Sep 21 '24 at 13:49
  • To be fair, I don't know how to prove disconnectedness after short thinking, but I have faith :D – kaba Sep 21 '24 at 13:51
  • 3
    Kaba and Theo: Those should be answers. – Lee Mosher Sep 21 '24 at 13:54
  • @Theo Bandit: I drew your function with GeoGebra, and it looks just like a simple spiral. Hence, it does not separate the plane. Might be the drawing is misleading? – Ulli Sep 21 '24 at 13:59
  • @kaba: yes, at first glance it looks promising. But I'm also not sure, whether it really separates the plane. Isn't the y-axis in the closure of the left part and of the right part? – Ulli Sep 21 '24 at 14:03
  • I think the drawing is misleading, but yes, it doesn't work, for similar reasons in the comment above: the closed unit disk is separated from the rest of the points only in the path-connected sense. – Theo Bendit Sep 21 '24 at 14:06
  • @Ulli Yes, I think your observation shows that it is connected. I think it is merely pathdisconnected. – kaba Sep 21 '24 at 14:15
  • Why does it not work with a circle? –  Sep 21 '24 at 15:41
  • 3
    @YvesDaoust A circle is not homeomorphic to $[0, 1)$. – Theo Bendit Sep 21 '24 at 15:49
  • Alexander duality says that the zeroth Cech cohomology of the complement has to be zero. This in turn says that it is connected. The elements of zeroth Cech cohomology are locally constant functions, and if there were a separation of the complement, one could find a nontrivial locally constant function. – Cheerful Parsnip Sep 21 '24 at 17:50
  • 1
    @Cheerful Parsnip: this sounds interesting. Would you mind turning this into an answer, perhaps with some additional context / references ? Would be very helpful for me, since I'm not very used to Alexander duality. But yes, this was also my assumption that a solution would require algebraic topology. – Ulli Sep 21 '24 at 18:09
  • Yes, I'll write it up more carefully as an answer later today, unless someone else beats me to it. – Cheerful Parsnip Sep 21 '24 at 19:20
  • 1
    @CheerfulParsnip: You cannot use Alexander duality directly in this context. In the case of maps with bounded image connectivity follows from Eilenberg's theorem. In general, probably Sitnikov duality, but I will have to check. – Moishe Kohan Sep 21 '24 at 19:23
  • 1
    @MoisheKohan ah, yes, you are right, the subspace needs to be compact. – Cheerful Parsnip Sep 21 '24 at 20:55
  • @Noah Schweber: Thank you for the bounty. I feel honored. Hopefully we'll get a result. I'd be delighted! – Ulli Sep 23 '24 at 18:55
  • I wonder if this could be made rigorous, please tell me if I'm wrong: any homeomorphism between $[0,1)$ and a subset of $\mathbb C$, viewed as an embedding of $[0,1)$ into $\mathbb C_\infty$, extends continuously to an embedding of $[0,1]$. By compacity, it is easy to append another arc and create an embedding of the unit circle, which separates the spheree in two components by the Jordan arc theorem. We remove the appendix and those two components become one. – Jose L. Arregui Sep 27 '24 at 22:20
  • @Jose L. Arregui: no, I think this is not correct: the topologist's sine curve is an embedding of $[0, 1)$ into $\mathbb C$, hence into $\mathbb C_\infty$, but cannot be extended to an embedding of $[0, 1]$. – Ulli Sep 28 '24 at 06:45
  • Thank you @Ulli, you are right! By the way I can't believe I wrote "compacity" instead of " compactness", obviously I'm not very competent in topological arguments... – Jose L. Arregui Sep 28 '24 at 07:51
  • @Jose L. Arregui: BTW: "... it is easy to append another arc and create an embedding of the unit circle": yes, I think this true, but it is not trivial, see here for a discussion. – Ulli Sep 28 '24 at 09:22
  • To the one, who downvoted: I'm sure you have good reasons. But it would be very helpful if you are encouraged enough to share these reasons. – Ulli Oct 21 '24 at 07:44

2 Answers2

10

I think the following works. More generally, I think it shows (with a little extra work) that an embedding of $(0,1)$ can only split the plane into two components if the end points are at infinity (i.e. it extends to an embedding of $S^1$ in $S^2$ containing $\infty$).

Theorem. There is no embedding of $[0,1)$ in $\mathbb{R}^2$ that separates the plane into two (or more) connected components.

Let $\gamma:[0,1)\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2$ be an embedding, and let $C$ be its image. We say that $C$ locally splits the plane into $n$ components at $c\in C$ if every neighbordhood of $c$ contains neighborhood $N$ of $c$ homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^2$ such that $N-C$ has $n$ components. The idea is that for each $t$, $C$ locally splits the plane into either $1$ or $2$ components near $\gamma(t)$, depending on whether $t=0$ or $t>0$. Connectivity of $C$ allows us to stitch up these neighborhoods, which shows that all local components of $\mathbb{R}^2-C$ near $C$ are part of the same global component $\Gamma$.

But the global components of $\mathbb{R}^2-C$ containing $\gamma(t)$ as a limit point are precisely those that show up (as a subset) as a local component near $\gamma(t)$. Thus, $C\subset\overline{\Gamma}$ and and $C$ is disjoint from the closures of all other components of $\mathbb{R}^2-C$. In fact, $C\subset\overline{\Gamma}$ implies $\overline{C}\subset\overline{\Gamma}$, so $\overline{C}-C\subset\Gamma$. However, each component of $\mathbb{R}^2-C$ must have boundary contained in $\overline{C}$, so it is not possible for there to be another component.

Moise Ch10 Theorem 13. Every triangulable set in $\mathbb{R}^2$ is tame.

Triangulable means homeomorphic to a Euclidean simplicial complex, and tame means ambiently so. For us, this means there is an ambient homoemorphism of $\mathbb{R}^2$ sending $C$ to an infinite polygonal chain $P$ with exactly one endpoint. Since $C$ is an embedding, so is $P$, so WLOG, we can assume $\gamma$ is piece-wise linear.

Lemma 1. $C$ locally splits the plane into $1$ or $2$ components near $\gamma(t)$, depending on whether $t=0$ or $t>0$, respectively.

By Moise, we can assume $C$ is a linear complex. Let $t\in [0,1)$, and let $K$ be the union of the edges containing $\gamma(t)$. Define $\varepsilon_t$ to be the minimum distance from $\gamma(t)$ to a vertex in $K-\{\gamma(t)\}$. Then, for $\varepsilon\leq\varepsilon_t$, $N_\varepsilon\cap K$ is connected and the image of an open interval $I$ (w.r.t the topology of $[0,1)$) under $\gamma$. If there are arbitrarily small $\varepsilon\leq\varepsilon_t$ for which $N_\varepsilon\cap C$ is disconnected, then there is a sequence $(t_n)$ with $t_n\not\in \gamma^{-1}(K)\supset I$ such that $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\gamma(t_n)=\gamma(t)$, which contradicts the fact that $\gamma$ is an embedding. Thus, $N_\varepsilon\cap C$ is connected for $\varepsilon$ sufficiently small.

Now within $N_\varepsilon$, $K$ is simply the union of two radii when $t>0$, and one radius when $t=0$. Thus, $N_\varepsilon-C=N_\varepsilon-K$ has one or two components, depending on whether $t=0$ or $t>0$, respectively. $\square$

Lemma 2. There is a single connected component $\Gamma\subseteq\mathbb{R}^2-C$ such that every sufficiently small neighborhood of $c\in C$ has intersection with $\mathbb{R}^2-C$ contained in $\Gamma$.

A choice function $f$ taking $t$ to a $N_\varepsilon$ as in lemma 1 for each $t$ results in a covering of $C$ by $\{f(t)\}_{t\in[0,1)}$ and a covering for $[0,1)$ by $\{\gamma^{-1}(f(t))\}_{t\in[0,1)}$. Each point of $f(t)\cap C$ is a limit point of each of the components of $f(t)-C$. Thus, each component of $f(t)-C$ must intersect a component of $f(t')-C$ for $t'\in \gamma^{-1}(f(t))$. So on any interval $I$ (i.e. a connected set), the number of connected components of $\bigcup_{t\in I}f(t)-C$ cannot exceed the number of connected components of $f(t)-C$ for any $t\in I$. In particular, $\bigcup_{t\in[0,1)}f(t)-C$ is connected. $\square$

Edit. I realized, as pointed out in the comments, that I had assumed every $c\in C$ necessarily had an $\varepsilon$-neighborhood with connected intersection with $C$. This does not seem to be trivial, or necessarily true. I have remedied this with Moise's theorem on the tameness of triangulable manifold embeddings in $\mathbb{R}^2$, which made using Hatcher 2B.1 unnecessary.

Jacob
  • 3,319
  • 15
  • 27
  • Your proof seems very plausible to me. Thank you very much for that! But I have to admit that there are some things in it that I don't (yet) understand, and unfortunately it may take a while before I can understand it at least in general. Therefore, I would appreciate it if two or three users who are perhaps more familiar with the subject could independently review the proof and comment on it accordingly. Thank you very much in advance! – Ulli Sep 25 '24 at 10:30
  • But I will start in small steps to understand the details. I hope that's ok for you? Here is one: In lemma 1, you seem to assume that for each $c \in C$ there is an (arbitrary small) $\epsilon$-neighborhood $N_\epsilon$ of $c$, such that $N_\epsilon \cap C$ is connected. Why is that? – Ulli Sep 25 '24 at 10:42
  • @Ulli I think there does not necessarily exist some such neighbourhood $N_\epsilon$. Consider, for example, the curve used in the construction of the Warzaw circle that you linked to in your post. This curve can be parametrized by $[0,1)$ (for example, we can let $[0,1/2]$ parametrize the arc joining $(0,0)$ and $(1,0)$, and let $[1/2,1)$ parametrize the remainder of the curve). Let $\gamma$ be some such parametrization. Then, $(0,0)$ does not have a neighbourhood $N$ such that $\gamma^{-1}(N)$ is an interval. – Jon Sep 25 '24 at 12:02
  • Addendum to my second comment: I assumed, by "$\epsilon$-neighborhood" you meant "$\epsilon$-ball". But perhaps it's just an open neighborhood contained in the $\epsilon$-ball, whose existence is clear of course. However, to apply the following results, I guess this neighborhood has to be homeomorphic to a disc, and then again, how to show that this exists? – Ulli Sep 25 '24 at 12:04
  • @Jon: but this $\gamma$ is not an embedding! For instance, since the Warsaw circle is not locally connected. However, this example shows that it might not be trivial that such a neighborhood exists also in our context. – Ulli Sep 25 '24 at 12:24
  • @Ulli I meant $\varepsilon$-ball. I know I thought about this and decided from loose details that it was trivial, but I realize now that that is not the case. I have a feeling it might not even be true (I'm imagining something with corrugations like the graph of $x^2\sin(1/x)$). I have edited my answer to fix this. – Jacob Sep 25 '24 at 22:00
  • Sorry, another question: In the proof of lemma 2 you state "Each point of $f(t)\cap C$ is a limit point of each of the components of $f(t)-C$". Why is that? Might be these are similar arguments as in the proof of the Jordan curve theorem? Or is there a simpler argumentation? – Ulli Sep 26 '24 at 15:11
  • I think for $t=0$, this is straightforward, since $f(t) \setminus C$ is connected and $C$ is nowhere dense in $\mathbb R^2$. – Ulli Sep 26 '24 at 15:27
  • @Ulli Originally this was because of the Jordan curve theorem (specifically lemma 1 of the paper you linked), but now that the theorem from Moise is used rather than Hatcher, it follows straightforwardly when assuming $C$ is piecewise linear. – Jacob Sep 26 '24 at 15:51
  • Ah, yes, this makes sense. I have to go through it again, tomorrow. – Ulli Sep 26 '24 at 16:44
  • The book of Moise is "Geometric topology in dimensions 2 and 3" by Moise, Edwin E, 1977. It can be borrowed online here. I guess theorem 8 (ch. 10, p. 76) should suffice rather than theorem 13. Hence, one need not check about triangulabled sets. – Ulli Sep 26 '24 at 17:02
  • I think I've now completely checked your proof. If I haven't overlooked anything, it should be correct. Well, I have not checked the central argument in your proof, namely the great theorem in the book of Moise, but I will rely on that. Thanks a lot! – Ulli Sep 27 '24 at 12:32
  • In Lemma 2, what is a neighborhood of $c \in C$ in ithe complement of $C$? Do you mean a nbhd $U$ in $\mathbb R^2$ such that $U - C \subset \Gamma$? By the way, you have at typo: $\Gamma \subset \mathbb R^2 - C$. – Kritiker der Elche Sep 28 '24 at 09:10
  • And where precisely did you use Lemma 1 in the proof of Lemma 2? (I mean the numbers 1 and 2.) – Kritiker der Elche Sep 28 '24 at 09:22
  • @KritikerderElche It means you take the neighborhood in $\mathbb{R}^2$ and intersect with $\mathbb{R}^2-C$. I will fix that. Also lemma 1 is used in the very first sentence of lemma 2. The most important fact is that there is one component for $t=0$, which is what makes the whole union $\bigcup f(t)-C$ connected. – Jacob Sep 28 '24 at 09:27
  • Okay, then Lemma 2 says that $C$ has an open neighborhood $W$ in $\mathbb R^2$ such that $ W - C$ is connected. – Kritiker der Elche Sep 28 '24 at 09:36
  • Sorry, but why exactly do you think that sufficiently small nbhd of every point on a ray has only finitely many components? There's a clear counterexample: take a ray of irrational slope on the flat torus starting from (0, 0). Weierstrass P-function maps this ray injectively to $R^2 \cong \Bbb {CP}^1 \setminus \infty$ such that every small nbhd of a point on the image of the ray has countably many connected components. – xsnl Jan 07 '25 at 16:24
  • Also this ray fails your condition on connectedness of intersection with small nbhd at every point! – xsnl Jan 07 '25 at 16:27
  • @xsnl It’s shown in the first paragraph of lemma 1. Your supposed counterexample is not an embedding because it’s not locally connected, while $[0,1)$ is. – Jacob Jan 08 '25 at 00:14
  • I'm telling you exactly that Moise's theorem is not applicable to a general embedding of a ray, so this first paragraph of lemma 1 is wrong. Composition of irrational geodesic with P-function is absolutely definitely an embedding, in sense of being an injective continuous function. This may come in conflict with geometric topologists' definiton of "embedding", which presumes that induced topology on the image coincides with the topology on the domain. (But this case is easy anyways, and you do not need Moise theorem for it.) – xsnl Jan 08 '25 at 05:45
  • @xsnl In this context, embedding is only taken to mean a homeomorphism onto its image, otherwise there would be obvious counterexamples to OP's question like a circle, as was pointed out in the comments. Your ray fails to meet the implicit embedding hypothesis of Lemma 1.

    What's the easy way without Moise's theorem? I know you don't need to the full theorem, but all pathways I could see relied on tameness of $1$-dimensional embeddings in $\mathbb{R}^2$, which is non-trivial to my knowledge.

    – Jacob Jan 08 '25 at 20:20
5

$\mathbb C \setminus A$ is connected. The proof is non-trivial and uses Alexander duality plus two theorems of complex analysis.

By $E$ we denote the extended complex plane $\mathbb C \cup \{\infty\}$ which is homeomorphic to $S^2$.

Let us first prove that $E \setminus A$ is connected.

The closure $\overline A^E$ in $E$ is a compactification of $A$ and the remainder $X = \overline A^E \setminus A$ is a nonempty compact connected subset of $E$ (see e.g. my answer to Non-equivalent compactifications of $[0, \infty)$). The complement $E \setminus X$ is an open subset of $E$, thus locally connected. Therefore all components $U_\alpha$ of $E \setminus X$ are open in $E$. Clearly they are not closed because they are contained in $E \setminus X \subsetneqq E$.

We claim that the boundaries $\operatorname{bd}^E U_\alpha$ in $E$ (which are nonempty!) are contained in $X$. Since the $U_\alpha$ are disjoint, we see that $\overline U_\alpha^E \cap U_\beta = \emptyset$ for $\beta \ne \alpha$. Thus $(\operatorname{bd}^E U_\alpha) \cap U_\beta = \emptyset$ for all $\beta$ (for $\beta = \alpha$ this is trivial). This shows $(\operatorname{bd}^E U_\alpha)\cap (E \setminus X ) = \emptyset$ which proves the claim.

Since the $\overline U_\alpha^E$ are connected, we conclude that the $X_\alpha = X \cup \overline U_\alpha^E = X \cup U_\alpha$ are connected.

One of the $U_\alpha$ must contain $A$, say $U_{\alpha_0}$. The set $Y = E \setminus U_{\alpha_0}$ is closed and has the form $Y = X \cup \bigcup_{\beta \ne \alpha}U_\alpha = \bigcup_{\beta \ne \alpha} X_\alpha$. It is connected because all $X_\alpha$ contain $X$.

It is well-known theorem that a connected open subset of $\mathbb C$ is simply connected if and only if its complement in $E$ is connected. This was the purpose of working with $E$. Therefore $U_{\alpha_0}$ is simply connected (actually all $U_\alpha$ are simply connected). Another well-known theorem shows then that $U_{\alpha_0}$ is homeomorphic to an open disk. We conclude that the quotient $E/Y$ is a one-point compactification $U_{\alpha_0} \cup\{*\}$ of $U_{\alpha_0}$, thus homeomorphic to $S^2$. The set $A' = A \cup \{*\}$ is an arc in $E/Y$, thus the Alexander duality theorem shows that $(E/Y) \setminus A' = U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A$ is (pathwise) connected.

We claim that $X \subset \overline{U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A}^{E \setminus A}$. Let $V'$ be an open neighborhood of $x \in X$ in $E \setminus A$. Then $V' = V \cap (E \setminus A)$ with an open neighborhood $V$ of $x$ in $E$. Since $x$ is a cluster point of $A$, $V$ contains some $a \in A$ so that $V \cap U_{\alpha_0}$ is an open neighborhood of $a$ in $U_{\alpha_0}$. Since $A$ does not have interior points, $V \cap U_{\alpha_0}$ must contain a point of $U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A$. Hence $V' \cap (U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A) = V \cap (U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A) \ne \emptyset$.

Since $\overline{U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A}^{E \setminus A}$ is connected, we see that $\overline{U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A}^{E \setminus A} \cup Y = E \setminus A$ is connected. $\phantom{xxxx} \square$

Let us now come to $\mathbb C \setminus A$.

We shall use the same sets $U_\alpha$ as above and what we know about them.

Case 1. $\infty \notin X$ (i.e. $A$ is bounded).

Then $\infty \in U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A$ or $\infty \in U_{\alpha}$ for some $\alpha \ne \alpha_0$. Let $U'_\alpha = U_\alpha \cap \mathbb C$ for all $\alpha$.

$U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A$ and $U_{\alpha}$ are connected open subsets of $E$, thus pathwise connected. Therefore $U'_{\alpha_0} \setminus A$ and the $U'_{\alpha}$ are pathwise connected open subsets of $\mathbb C$ because they arise from $U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A$ and $U_{\alpha}$ by removing at most one point which preserves pathwise connectedness.

We have $\operatorname{bd}^{\mathbb C} U'_\alpha = \operatorname{bd}^E U_\alpha$ and $\overline{U'_{\alpha_0} \setminus A}^{\mathbb C \setminus A} = \overline{U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A}^{E \setminus A}$. Repeating the above arguments shows that $Y' = X \cup \bigcup_{\beta \ne \alpha}U'_\alpha$ is connected and hence also $\overline{U'_{\alpha_0} \setminus A}^{\mathbb C \setminus A} \cup Y' = \mathbb C \setminus A$ is connected.

Case 2. $\infty \in X$.

2.1. $X = \{\infty\}$.

Then $\overline A^E = A \cup \{\infty\}$ is an arc in $E$ and as above (by Alexander duality) we see that $E \setminus \overline A^E = \mathbb C \setminus A$ is connected.

2.2. $X \setminus \{\infty\} \ne \emptyset$.

Let $X' = X \setminus \{\infty\}$. Then all $U_\alpha \subset \mathbb C \setminus X' \subsetneqq \mathbb C$. The same arguments as above show that the (non-empty!) boundaries $\operatorname{bd}^{\mathbb C} U_\alpha \subset X'$ and that $X' \subset \overline{U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A}^{\mathbb C \setminus A}$. Hence all $Z_\alpha = \overline{U_{\alpha_0} \setminus A}^{\mathbb C \setminus A} \cup \overline U_\alpha^{\mathbb C}$ with $\alpha \ne \alpha_0$ are connected. Thus the union $\bigcup_{\alpha \ne \alpha_0} Z_\alpha = \mathbb C \setminus A$ is connected.

Ben Steffan
  • 8,325
Paul Frost
  • 87,968
  • Your answer sounds reasonable for me (+1). However, as I'm very happy with Jacob's answer, and not familiar with Alexander duality, please understand, that I will not dive deeper into the quite complicated details of your proof. But, of course, it's always interesting to have a quite different, alternative proof. Thank you very much! – Ulli Oct 04 '24 at 08:06