I am trying to understand a proof that a bounded sequence in a separable Hilbert space $\mathcal H$ contains a weakly convergent subsequence, as in Theorem 5.12 of Gilbarg & Trudinger's "Elliptic Partial Differential Equations of Second Order". There are three points in the proof which I cannot justify.
I put the condition of separability because then the authors prove the general case from the separable one, and I understand how to make that transition, so my problems are with the separable case.
For ease of following here, I will give the whole proof and I will highlight with bold and a question number where my confusions lie.
Let $\{ y_m \}$ be a countable dense set in $\mathcal H$ and $x_n$ a bounded sequence. If I understand right, the authors claim that, for each $m$, by the Cantor diagonal process we can find a subsequence $x_{n_k^m}$ such that $(x_{n_k^m}, y_m) \xrightarrow{k\rightarrow \infty} \alpha_m$ for some $\alpha_m \in \mathbb R$.
Question 1. How is Cantor's diagonalisation process applied to obtained such sequences?
Then they define a mapping $f: \{ y_m \} \rightarrow \mathbb R$ by $f(y_m):= \alpha_m$. They claim that this $f$ can be extended to a bounded linear map on $\mathcal H$. Naturally, I would suspect that we extend it as follows: For $x \in \mathcal H$, we find $y_{m_i} \rightarrow x$ and we put $f(x):= \lim_{i \rightarrow \infty} \alpha_{m_i}$.
Question 2. Why is this definition good? I.e. why does $\alpha_{m_i}$ converge, why does it not depend on the choice of the sequence $y_{m_i}$ converging to $x$, and why is does it yield a continuous linear map?
Finally, they apply the Riesz representation theorem to this extended $f$, obtaining an $x$ such that $f(y) = (x, y)$ for any $y \in \mathcal H$. Then they claim that a subsequence $x_{n_k}$ of the original sequence $\{ x_n \}$ satisfies $(x_{n_k}, y) \xrightarrow{k \rightarrow \infty} f(y)$. I fail to see why. We know that: $(x_{n_k^i}, y_{m_i}) \rightarrow f(y_{m_i})$. We pick $y_{m_i} \rightarrow y$ and then we have $$ \lim_i (\lim_k (x_{n_k^i}, y_{m_i})) = \lim_i (f(y_{m_i})) = f(y) $$ But what we need is different, namely we need $\lim_k \lim_i$, which is equal to $\lim_k (\lim_i (x_{n_k^i}), y)$ since $\lim_i y_{m_i} = y$. But for this argument to work, there remains:
Question 3. Why is it that $\lim_i (x_{n_k^i})$ exists in $\mathcal H$, is an element of the original sequence $x_n$, and why is it that we can permute $\lim_i$ with $\lim_k$ i.e. that $$ \lim_i (\lim_k (x_{n_k^i}, y_{m_i})) = \lim_k ( \lim_i (x_{n_k^i}, y_{m_i})) $$?
Now that I have redacted this question, I have a feeling it would be largely solved by understanding how the Cantor argument is used.